Darren73
- 8
- 0
Hi,
I saw a derivation in a book and I don't see the logical connection. Suppose 1.\ \ a=b \text{ and } 2.\ \ x=y
Then 3.\ \ a-b= \lambda (x-y) makes sense to me since 0=\text{Anything}⋅0
However they said "similarly" 4.\ \ a+b= \mu (x+y), and this I don't understand. To me a+b= 2a \text{ or }2b and x+y=2x\text{ or }2y, so unless there was a defined linear relationship such as a \propto x \text{ or }y, OR b \propto x \text{ or } y, then I don't see how they could propose equation 4. to be necessarily true.
I may have a blind spot, if so please help.
I saw a derivation in a book and I don't see the logical connection. Suppose 1.\ \ a=b \text{ and } 2.\ \ x=y
Then 3.\ \ a-b= \lambda (x-y) makes sense to me since 0=\text{Anything}⋅0
However they said "similarly" 4.\ \ a+b= \mu (x+y), and this I don't understand. To me a+b= 2a \text{ or }2b and x+y=2x\text{ or }2y, so unless there was a defined linear relationship such as a \propto x \text{ or }y, OR b \propto x \text{ or } y, then I don't see how they could propose equation 4. to be necessarily true.
I may have a blind spot, if so please help.