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My question is:
Let V = \mathbb{R}_1 [x] be the vector space of polynomials in x of degree at most 1. For f(x) \, , \, g(x) \in \mathbb{R}_1 [x], define:
<f(x) \, , \, g(x)> \, = \int_0^1 x^2 f(x) g(x) dx
Show that this defines an inner product on \mathbb{R}_1[x]. (You may assume the result which says that for function h(x) \, , \text{if} \, h(x) \geq 0 \, \, \forall x, then \int_0^1 h(x) dx \geq 0 with equality iff h \equiv 0)
I have no idea how to even approach this, can someone point me in the right direction please.
Let V = \mathbb{R}_1 [x] be the vector space of polynomials in x of degree at most 1. For f(x) \, , \, g(x) \in \mathbb{R}_1 [x], define:
<f(x) \, , \, g(x)> \, = \int_0^1 x^2 f(x) g(x) dx
Show that this defines an inner product on \mathbb{R}_1[x]. (You may assume the result which says that for function h(x) \, , \text{if} \, h(x) \geq 0 \, \, \forall x, then \int_0^1 h(x) dx \geq 0 with equality iff h \equiv 0)