Defining Neighborhoods in Topology: Inclusion vs. Containment

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SUMMARY

The forum discussion centers on the definitions of neighborhoods in topology, specifically contrasting the inclusion of an open set versus defining a neighborhood as an open set that contains a point. The latter definition is favored for its convenience in formulating separation axioms, such as regularity, which requires a neighborhood basis of closed sets. Participants agree that while both definitions are equivalent, the inclusion definition may introduce unnecessary complexity. The discussion highlights the importance of understanding these definitions for clarity in topological concepts.

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  • Basic understanding of topology concepts, including neighborhoods and separation axioms.
  • Familiarity with open and closed sets in a topological space.
  • Knowledge of regular spaces and their properties.
  • Understanding of normality in topology and its implications.
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  • Research the equivalence of neighborhood definitions in topology.
  • Study the implications of separation axioms in topological spaces.
  • Explore the concept of normality and its relevance in metric spaces.
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Students of topology, mathematicians interested in set theory, and educators seeking to clarify the concepts of neighborhoods and separation axioms in their teaching.

mr.tea
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Hi,t
I am studying topology at the moment. I have seen that some authors define the neighborhood of a point using inclusion of an open set, while others define the term as open set that contains the point.
In most of the theory I have seen so far, the latter is more convenient to use. Why is there a distinction between the definitions, and what are the advantages of the definition using the inclusion of an open set?

Thank you.
 
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I prefer the second definition you mention, because you can formulate the separation axioms in terms of neighborhoods then.

For example, a space is regular if and only if it contains a neighborhood basis of closed sets.

However, I have to admit, that for many purposes, we can work with open neighborhoods, as these form a neighborhood basis for the neighborhoods anyways.
 
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Math_QED said:
I prefer the second definition you mention, because you can formulate the separation axioms in terms of neighborhoods then.

For example, a space is regular if and only if it contains a neighborhood basis of closed sets.

However, I have to admit, that for many purposes, we can work with open neighborhoods, as these form a neighborhood basis for the neighborhoods anyways.
Thank you for the answer. So why do authors define it using inclusion of open set?
 
mr.tea said:
Thank you for the answer. So why do authors define it using inclusion of open set?

Personal preference, I suppose.
 
Can you explain more about the first definition? Do they say that the point is inside the open set that is included? If not, I would think that the point could be on the boundary of a "neighborhood", which would be a problem. If they do specify that the point is inside an open set contained in the neighborhood, then that allows one to call a closed set (or neither open nor closed) a "neighborhood". I think that could be more convenient some times.
 
FactChecker said:
Can you explain more about the first definition? Do they say that the point is inside the open set that is included? If not, I would think that the point could be on the boundary of a "neighborhood", which would be a problem. If they do specify that the point is inside an open set contained in the neighborhood, then that allows one to call a closed set (or neither open nor closed) a "neighborhood". I think that could be more convenient some times.
Yes. A set ##S## is a neighborhood of a point ##s\in X## if there is an open set ##U## containing ##s## and is contained in ##S## (##s\in U\subset S##).
Being an open set is independent of being closed. A lot of the theorems are either want a closed or open sets, and neither open nor closed sets are not really interesting or contributing anything (according to my understanding... please correct me if I am wrong). So I am not sure why to add this layer complication.
 
mr.tea said:
Yes. A set ##S## is a neighborhood of a point ##s\in X## if there is an open set ##U## containing ##s## and is contained in ##S## (##s\in U\subset S##).
Yes. That is necessary for that definition to be valid.
Being an open set is independent of being closed. A lot of the theorems are either want a closed or open sets, and neither open nor closed sets are not really interesting or contributing anything (according to my understanding... please correct me if I am wrong). So I am not sure why to add this layer complication.
I'm not sure which case you think is a "layer complication". The difference between the definitions is really cosmetic. Their equivalence is easy to prove. Therefore, it can be defined either way and it only takes an easy lemma to use the other, whenever desired.
 
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FactChecker said:
Yes. That is necessary for that definition to be valid.I'm not sure which case you think is a "layer complication". The difference between the definitions is really cosmetic. Their equivalence is easy to prove. Therefore, it can be defined either way and it only takes an easy lemma to use the other, whenever desired.

By "layer of complication" I meant the definition of including an open set, at least for me, I feel that this is an unnecessary addition (if we define neighborhood to be open).
 
mr.tea said:
By "layer of complication" I meant the definition of including an open set, at least for me, I feel that this is an unnecessary addition (if we define neighborhood to be open).
My point is that the two definitions are trivially equivalent. Allowing the freedom of letting a neighborhood not be open can simplify some theorem statements.
 
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  • #10
there are open neighborhoods and there are neighborhoods. the point is that all points near your point are in the "neighborhood." no big difference. move on. this is trivial.
 
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  • #11
To be pretentious, this condition is called normality ( one of the separation axioms), which goes, I think, without being T1. And metric spaces are normal.
 
  • #12
WWGD said:
To be pretentious, this condition is called normality ( one of the separation axioms), which goes, I think, without being T1. And metric spaces are normal.

I'm curious about what condition you are talking? Normality is that every two disjoint closed sets can be separated by disjoint neighborhoods.
 
  • #13
Math_QED said:
I'm curious about what condition you are talking? Normality is that every two disjoint closed sets can be separated by disjoint neighborhoods.
This is not actual normality, but I think follows from normality. Let me double check and see if I can prove or disprove my claim.
 

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