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Just wondering about something, given that ln(1)=0, then the below should hold true?

[itex]\int_0^1 1/x=0[/itex]

But the entire graph from 0 to 1 of 1/x is positive, unbounded in fact to positive infinity. So is there an intuitive explanation for why the area under the graph of 1/x from 0 to 1, while being seemingly positive infinity, is actually zero? I assume it has something to do with ln(0) and thus 1/0 being undefined?

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# Definite Integral of 1/x from 0 to 1

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