Derivation of Taylor Series in R^n

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on the derivation of the Taylor series in ℝn, specifically addressing the use of the second derivative at a point τ, rather than at 0, during the Taylor expansion. The function g(t) is defined as g(t) = f(x0 + vt), where v is a generic versor, and the Taylor expansion is expressed as g(t) = g(0) + g'(0)t + (1/2)g''(τ)t². The use of g''(τ) is justified by Lagrange's theorem, which states that the remainder term in the Taylor series can be evaluated at some point τ in the interval [0, t]. This clarification resolves the confusion regarding the application of Taylor's theorem in multivariable calculus.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of multivariable calculus, specifically Taylor series in ℝn.
  • Familiarity with Lagrange's theorem and its application in calculus.
  • Knowledge of differentiability classes, particularly C2(A).
  • Basic understanding of vector notation and operations in ℝn.
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the derivation of Taylor series in multiple dimensions, focusing on the remainder term.
  • Explore Lagrange's theorem and its implications in higher-order derivatives.
  • Review the properties of functions in Cn spaces and their differentiability.
  • Practice problems involving Taylor expansions for functions of several variables.
USEFUL FOR

Mathematics students, educators, and researchers in fields requiring advanced calculus, particularly those focusing on multivariable analysis and Taylor series applications.

mastrofoffi
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I was studying the derivation for taylor series in ℝ##^n## on my book and I have some trouble understanding a passage; it's the very beginning actually:

##f : A## ⊆ ℝ##^n## → ℝ
##f ## ∈ ##C^2(A)##
##x_0## ∈ ##A##

"be ##g_{(t)} = f_{(x_0 + vt)}## where v is a generic versor, then we have:
##g_{(t)} = g_{(0)} + g'_{(0)}t + \frac{1}{2}g''_{(\tau)}t^2## where ##\tau ∈ [0, t]##"

I don't understand why is it ok to do taylor expansion centered in t=0 and then use ##g''_{(\tau)}## instead of ##g''_{(0)}##?
I'm actually fine with the rest of the demonstration which is quite easy but I'd like to understand what he's doing here; I was pretty sure it could be something coming from Lagrange's theorem(he uses it everywhere) but I can't really see it here.
 
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mastrofoffi said:
I was studying the derivation for taylor series in ℝ##^n## on my book and I have some trouble understanding a passage; it's the very beginning actually:

##f : A## ⊆ ℝ##^n## → ℝ
##f ## ∈ ##C^2(A)##
##x_0## ∈ ##A##

"be ##g_{(t)} = f_{(x_0 + vt)}## where v is a generic versor, then we have:
##g_{(t)} = g_{(0)} + g'_{(0)}t + \frac{1}{2}g''_{(\tau)}t^2## where ##\tau ∈ [0, t]##"

I don't understand why is it ok to do taylor expansion centered in t=0 and then use ##g''_{(\tau)}## instead of ##g''_{(0)}##?
I'm actually fine with the rest of the demonstration which is quite easy but I'd like to understand what he's doing here; I was pretty sure it could be something coming from Lagrange's theorem(he uses it everywhere) but I can't really see it here.

The Taylor expansion of first order with remainder for a univariate function is
$$g(t) = g(0) + t g'(0) + \frac{t^2}{2!} g''(\tau),$$
where ##\tau## is a value between ##0## and ##t##.

In general, if ##g \in C^{n+1}## we have
$$g(t) = g(0) + t g'(0) + \frac{t^2}{2!} g''(0) + \cdots + \frac{t^n}{n!} g^{(n)}(0) + \frac{t^{n+1}}{(n+1)!} g^{(n+1)}(\tau).$$

See your textbook, or look on-line for "Taylor series with remainder".
 
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Oh, so it is the remainder in lagrange form for the 1st order expansion.
Its so obvious now that i see it! I can't believe i got stuck on this ahah thank you ^^
 

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