Derivation of torque on general current distribution

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on simplifying the expression for torque derived from a general current distribution, specifically transitioning from the integral involving cross products of current densities to a more simplified form. The original expression is given as $$\int_{\mathcal{V'}}\int_{\mathcal{V}}\frac{\mathbf{\mathrm{x}}\times[\mathbf{\mathrm{J_1(\mathbf{\mathrm{x'}})}}[\mathbf{\mathrm{J_2(x)}}\cdot(\mathbf{\mathrm{x}-\mathbf{\mathrm{x'}}})]]}{|\mathbf{\mathrm{x}}-\mathbf{\mathrm{x'}}|^3}\,\mathrm{d^3}x\,\mathrm{d^3}x'$$ and is simplified to $$\int_{\mathcal{V'}}\int_{\mathcal{V}}\frac{\mathbf{\mathrm{J_2(\mathbf{\mathrm{x}})}}\times\mathbf{\mathrm{J_1(\mathbf{\mathrm{x'}})}}}{|\mathbf{\mathrm{x}}-\mathbf{\mathrm{x'}}|}\,\mathrm{d^3}x\,\mathrm{d^3}x'$$. The discussion highlights the importance of the divergence of the current densities being zero, $$\nabla\cdot\mathbf{J_1}=\nabla\cdot\mathbf{J_2}=0$$, and suggests using integration by parts to facilitate the simplification process.

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user1139
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How do I simplify the expression

$$\int_{\mathcal{V'}}\int_{\mathcal{V}}\frac{\mathbf{\mathrm{x}}\times[\mathbf{\mathrm{J_1(\mathbf{\mathrm{x'}})}}[\mathbf{\mathrm{J_2(x)}}\cdot(\mathbf{\mathrm{x}-\mathbf{\mathrm{x'}}})]]}{|\mathbf{\mathrm{x}}-\mathbf{\mathrm{x'}}|^3}\,\mathrm{d^3}x\,\mathrm{d^3}x'$$

to

$$\int_{\mathcal{V'}}\int_{\mathcal{V}}\frac{\mathbf{\mathrm{J_2(\mathbf{\mathrm{x}})}}\times\mathbf{\mathrm{J_1(\mathbf{\mathrm{x'}})}}}{|\mathbf{\mathrm{x}}-\mathbf{\mathrm{x'}}|}\,\mathrm{d^3}x\,\mathrm{d^3}x'$$

I was stuck after rewriting the first expression as

$$-\int_{\mathcal{V'}}\int_{\mathcal{V}}[\mathbf{\mathrm{x}}\times\mathbf{\mathrm{J_1(\mathbf{\mathrm{x'}})}}]
\left[\mathbf{\mathrm{J_2(x)}\cdot\nabla\left(\frac{1}{|\mathbf{\mathrm{x}-\mathbf{\mathrm{x'}}}|}\right)} \right] \,\mathrm{d^3}x\,\mathrm{d^3}x'$$
 
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What do we know about the current densities ##\mathbf{J_1},\mathbf{J_2}##? I guess that their divergence is zero that is $$\nabla\cdot\mathbf{J_1}=\nabla\cdot\mathbf{J_2}=0$$. Anything else do we know? Do we know anything about $$\nabla\times\mathbf{J_1},\nabla\times\mathbf{J_2}$$
My thinking tells me that the two expressions aren't equal in the general case. Perhaps you have some typos? Maybe you forgot to put a ##\nabla## operator somewhere in the second expression?
 
Both current densities are that of steady current. There was no information on the curls of the current densities. I checked again and the second expression does not have any error.
 
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You have ##\vec{\nabla} \cdot \vec{J}_1=\vec{\nabla} \cdot \vec{J}_2=0##. Then you have
$$\vec{\nabla} \frac{1}{|\vec{x}-\vec{x}'|}=-\vec{\nabla}' \frac{1}{|\vec{x}-\vec{x}'|}.$$
Then you can use integration by parts wrt. to the integral over ##\vec{x}'##...
 
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I am not sure of the first step. Would you mind writing out the integration by parts?
 
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