I'm going through the book "Elementry Differnetial Equations With Boundary Value Problems" 4th Eddition by William R. Derrick and Stanley I. Grossman.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

On Page 138 (below) )

The authors take the derivative of a definite integral and end up with a definite integral plus another term. How did they do this?

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# I Derivative of A Def. Integral Equals Another Def. Integral?

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