Undergrad Derivative of a function of another function

Click For Summary
The discussion centers on the application of the chain rule in calculus, specifically regarding the derivative of a function defined in terms of another function. The original poster is confused about how to express the derivative of a function when the variable does not explicitly appear in its formula. Participants clarify that the chain rule applies, allowing for the calculation of partial derivatives through the relationship between the functions involved. They emphasize the importance of clear notation to avoid ambiguity, particularly in mathematical contexts. Ultimately, the conversation highlights the necessity of understanding function relationships and proper notation in calculus.
kent davidge
Messages
931
Reaction score
56
This is really a simple question, but I'm stuck.

Suppose we have a function ##\vartheta'(\vartheta) = \vartheta## and that ##\vartheta = \vartheta(\varphi)## and we know what ##\vartheta(\varphi)## is. How should I view ##\frac{\partial \vartheta'}{\partial \varphi}##? Should I set it equal to zero because ##\varphi## does not appear explicitely? But as I said, I know what ##\vartheta(\varphi)## is in this particular case, and it is not even linear in ##\varphi##, so it doesn't make sense to say that its derivatives vanish.

Edit: I added a crucial correction to my post.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
What does ## \vartheta '( \vartheta )## mean?
 
fresh_42 said:
What does ## \vartheta '( \vartheta )## mean?
I'm sorry, that was a bad choice of notation. ##\vartheta'## is simply a function, the prime is there to differentiate it from ##\vartheta##. It does not mean derivative. If you prefer, let's call it ##\Theta## from now on to cause no confusion.
 
Still truly bad notation, especially because a prime superscript placed on the symbol for a function typically means its derivative. And this question is about derivatives.
 
  • Like
Likes fresh_42
zinq said:
Still truly bad notation, especially because a prime superscript placed on the symbol for a function typically means its derivative. And this question is about derivatives.
:oops::cry:
 
So we are talking about the chain rule? ##g=g(\varphi)## and ##f=f(g)##, so ##f=f(g(\varphi))##?
 
fresh_42 said:
So we are talking about the chain rule? ##g=g(\varphi)## and ##f=f(g)##, so ##f=f(g(\varphi))##?
oh yes. And I would like to know $$\frac{\partial f}{\partial \varphi}$$ If ##\varphi## were the argument of ##f## directly, then it would be the same as the total derivative of ##f## wrt it. But since ##\varphi## is the argument of ##g##, I'm not sure how to proceed.

chain rule?
oops, this just reminded me that we can use the chain rule also with partial derivatives. so $$\frac{\partial f}{\partial \varphi} = \frac{\partial f}{\partial g}\frac{\partial g}{\partial \varphi}$$ :biggrin::biggrin::biggrin:
 
##\dfrac{df}{d \varphi}=\dfrac{df(g)}{dg}\cdot\dfrac{dg(\varphi)}{d\varphi}##.
 
Let's try different notation for the OP and use an example.

Suppose we are given ##f(y) = 2y## and ## y = x^2##. Then what is ##\frac {df}{dx}##?

Is it zero because ##x## does not appear in the formula ##f(y) = 2y## ? Or is it ##4x## because ##f(x) = 2(x^2)## ?

This involves ambiguous and bad notation - and notation that is customary, especially in writing about physics! Beginning students in mathematics are taught that a function has a definite domain and co-domain. So if two functions have different co-domains, they must be different functions. The function ##f(y)## can take on negative values. The function ##f(x)## cannot. So we shouldn't use the name ##f## for both functions. However, it is common practice to do so.

When we are "given" that ##y = x^2##, it isn't clear how the name ##f## should be used in representing this fact. To be unambiguous, we could say there is function ##f(y) = 2y## and another function ##B(x) = f(x^2) = 2x^2##.

Technically speaking, if ##x## denotes a variable not in the domain of ##f## then ##\frac{df}{dx}## is undefined. However, convention says that we interpret ##\frac{df}{dx}## by pretending ##f(y)## is actually a function of two variables ##(x,y)## that is constant with respect to ##x##. With that convention, ##\frac{df}{dx} = \frac{\partial f}{\partial_x} = 0##.

I'd say the most common interpretation of the above example in physics is that ##\frac{df}{dx} = 0##.

In a math text, the author might want to give students an exercise in the chain rule. He would expect them to interpret ##\frac{df}{dx}## as the derivative of the function ##B(x)##.
 
  • Like
Likes kent davidge
  • #10
kent davidge said:
Suppose we have a function ##\vartheta'(\vartheta) = \vartheta## and that ##\vartheta = \vartheta(\varphi)## and we know what ##\vartheta(\varphi)## is.
Why are you using Greek letters here? The examples shown in the posts by @fresh_42 and @Stephen Tashi are much clearer, not to mention easier to type.
 
  • Like
Likes kent davidge
  • #11
Mark44 said:
Why are you using Greek letters here? The examples shown in the posts by @fresh_42 and @Stephen Tashi are much clearer, not to mention easier to type.
Indeed... As if it wasn't enough not understanding the topic, I come up with this notation to make things more difficult.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
1K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
1K
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
477
  • · Replies 16 ·
Replies
16
Views
3K
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K