Derivative Problem: when does f(x)=-f'(x)

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the equation f(x) = -f'(x), which leads to the solution f(x) = c₁e^{-x}, where c₁ is a constant in ℝ. The participants utilize Leibniz notation to separate variables and integrate, resulting in the natural logarithm of the absolute value of f(x) equating to C - x. The trivial solution f(x) = 0 is acknowledged as potentially lost during the variable separation process.

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What function equals the negative derivative of itself?
f(x) = -f'(x)
 
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Re: Derrivative Problem: when does f(x)=f'(x)

Hello, and welcome to MHB! (Wave)

SGR said:
What equation equals the negative derivative of its self?
f(x) = f'(x)

Do you mean:

$$f(x)=-f'(x)$$ ?
 
Re: Derrivative Problem: when does f(x)=f'(x)

YES! when does f(x) = -f'(x)??
 
Re: Derrivative Problem: when does f(x)=f'(x)

SGR said:
YES! when does f(x) = -f'(x)??

Let's use the notation of Leibniz and write:

$$\d{f}{x}=-f(x)$$

Now what if we separate variables and write:

$$\frac{1}{f(x)}\,df=-dx$$

We have divided by $f(x)$, and in doing so potentially eliminated the trivial solution $f(x)=0$, and so we need to be mindful of this in case the non-trivial solution does not include this.

What do you get when you integrate both sides of the above equation?
 
Re: Derrivative Problem: when does f(x)=f'(x)

MarkFL said:
Let's use the notation of Leibniz and write:

$$\d{f}{x}=-f(x)$$

Now what if we separate variables and write:

$$\frac{1}{f(x)}\,df=-dx$$

We have divided by $f(x)$, and in doing so potentially eliminated the trivial solution $f(x)=0$, and so we need to be mindful of this in case the non-trivial solution does not include this.

What do you get when you integrate both sides of the above equation?

I don't know how to integrate.
 
Re: Derrivative Problem: when does f(x)=f'(x)

SGR said:
I don't know how to integrate.

You haven't studied integration yet?
 
Re: Derivative Problem: when does f(x)=f'(x)

Hi SGR and welcome to MHB.

Do you know how to differentiate and that $e^x$ is its own derivative?

If so, consider

$$y=e^{-x}$$
 
Re: Derrivative Problem: when does f(x)=f'(x)

MarkFL said:
Let's use the notation of Leibniz and write:

$$\d{f}{x}=-f(x)$$

Now what if we separate variables and write:

$$\frac{1}{f(x)}\,df=-dx$$

We have divided by $f(x)$, and in doing so potentially eliminated the trivial solution $f(x)=0$, and so we need to be mindful of this in case the non-trivial solution does not include this.

What do you get when you integrate both sides of the above equation?

If we integrate, we get:

$$\ln|f(x)|=C-x$$

This implies:

$$f(x)=\pm e^{C-x}=\pm e^Ce^{-x}$$

Now, let $$c_1=\pm e^{C}$$ and also let $c_1=0$ (reintroducing the trivial solution we lost when separating variables) and we have $c_1\in\mathbb{R}$:

$$f(x)=c_1e^{-x}$$
 

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