Deriving the 1-D Linear Convection Equation

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on the derivation of the 1-D Linear Convection Equation from the 1-D Navier-Stokes equations under the assumptions of inviscid flow, no pressure gradient, and no body forces. The key point is the linearization process, where the velocity term is expressed as a sum of a constant velocity, u0, and a small perturbation, u'. The equation transitions from a nonlinear form, $$\frac {\partial u} {\partial t} + u \frac {\partial u} {\partial x} = 0$$, to a linear form, $$\frac {\partial u'} {\partial t} + u_0 \frac {\partial u'} {\partial x} = 0$$. The discussion emphasizes the importance of understanding why only one instance of the velocity term is replaced during this process.

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Mr_Acceleration
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With the assumptions of Inviscid flow, no pressure gradient and no body force terms in 1-D Navier Stokes becomes 1-D nonlinear convection equation;
sadasd.png

And if we assume velocity of wave propagation is constant value c, equation becomes 1-D linear convection equation;
sadasd.png

This is online derivation and my question is why only the u value outside of partial derivatives is replaced with c? we have 3 u term there. I was thinking they were all same term. So why do we only replace one of them?
 
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I don't think this is correct. Can you please provide the full derivation ?
 
dRic2 said:
I don't think this is correct. Can you please provide the full derivation ?
123.png

Here is the derivation.
 
This is correct so far. The problem is this:

Mr_Acceleration said:
And if we assume velocity of wave propagation is constant value c, equation becomes 1-D linear convection equation;

This is not. That's why I'd like a full derivation.

Anyway the reasoning is the following:
$$ \frac {\partial u} {\partial t} + u \frac {\partial u} {\partial x} = 0$$
is NON-linear. What you usually do is linearize it, by writing ##u = u_0 + u'## where ##u_0## is an unperturbed constant velocity and ##u'## is a small perturbation. If you substitute into the diff equation ##\frac {\partial u_0} {\partial t} = \frac {\partial u_0} {\partial x} = 0## because ##u_0## is a constant. You finally end up with
$$ \frac {\partial u'} {\partial t} + u_0 \frac {\partial u'} {\partial x} = 0$$
 
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Thank you for your answer. I didn't know about this. Now i will search linearization with pertubation.
 

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