Deriving the solution for a free particle from the TISE

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around deriving solutions for a free particle from the time-independent Schrödinger equation (TISE), specifically in the context of a potential \( V = 0 \). Participants are exploring the relationship between different forms of the wave function and the implications of complex coefficients.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the derivation of the wave function and question the equivalence of different forms, particularly the transition from trigonometric to exponential representations. There is an exploration of dimensionality arguments and the use of Euler's formula.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants providing insights into the relationship between coefficients and the forms of the wave function. Some participants suggest allowing complex coefficients to resolve apparent discrepancies, while others are clarifying their understanding of the mathematical relationships involved.

Contextual Notes

There is an underlying assumption that the coefficients \( A \) and \( B \) may be real, which some participants question. The discussion is framed within the constraints of a homework assignment, focusing on the derivation rather than final solutions.

CAF123
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Homework Statement


In my physics course, we have been given 'plausibility' arguments for the solutions of the time dependent/time independent SE. However, have done a Calculus course alongside, I feel I should really derive these solutions, since I have learned about the techniques of second order diff eqns.

The Attempt at a Solution


Considering the simple case first: ##V = 0##. In such a region, the TISE reduces to $$\frac{-\hbar^2}{2m} \frac{d^2}{dx^2} \psi(x) - E\psi(x) = 0.$$ Take the auxiliary eqn of this to get ##-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}r^2 - E = 0 => r = ±\frac{\sqrt{2mE}}{\hbar}i## and so the general solution is $$\psi(x) = A\cos(\frac{\sqrt{2mE}}{\hbar}) + B\sin(\frac{\sqrt{2mE}}{\hbar})$$
First question:I recognise my expression for ##r## as the expression for ##k##, the wavenumber. Can I simply let ##r = k## to recover this expression? If so, why?
Second question:I know the general soln in this case is ##\psi(x) = Ae^{ikx} + Be^{-ikx}. ##How does this follow from what I have? I thought about using the method of reduction of order to perhaps find this other term but then I noticed that the expression that I got did not have a term ##i\sin##, so what I have does not conform with the answer anyway.
Many thanks.
 
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You can set r=k on dimensionality arguments.
Use Euler's formula linking sin/cos and the complex exponential.
 
dextercioby said:
You can set r=k on dimensionality arguments.
Use Euler's formula linking sin/cos and the complex exponential.

Are you talking about $$e^{ikx} = \cos(kx) + i\sin(kx)?$$
In my case, I have ##Ae^{ikx} + Be^{-ikx} = A[\cos(kx) + i\sin(kx)] + B[\cos(kx) -i\sin(kx)] = \cos(kx)[A+B] +i\sin(kx)[A-B]##. In my expression I have no i. The only thing I can see of doing is saying ##A+B = ##some constant, ##C## and ##(A-B)i = ##some constant, ##D##, right?
 
CAF123 said:
In my expression I have no i.
What if you allow that A and B could be complex? Aren't the two solution formats then equivalent?
 
haruspex said:
What if you allow that A and B could be complex? Aren't the two solution formats then equivalent?

Is that not what I tried? Instead of A and B, I used C and D, so that in the end I get $$\psi(x) = C\cos(\frac{\sqrt{2mE}}{\hbar}) + D\sin(\frac{\sqrt{2mE}}{\hbar}) = (A+B)\cos(\frac{\sqrt{2mE}}{\hbar}) + (A-B)i\sin(\frac{\sqrt{2mE}}{\hbar})$$ Simplifying gives ##\psi(x) = Ae^{ikx} + Be^{-ikx}##.
 
CAF123 said:
Is that not what I tried?
OK. It wasn't clear to me that you had come to understand that the source of your difficulty was the assumption that A and B were real.
 

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