MHB Determining whether an integral converges based on comparison

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The integral $$\int_{1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{(x + x^2)^\frac{1}{3}} \,dx$$ was initially thought to converge based on a comparison with $$\int_{1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{(x^2)^\frac{1}{3}} \,dx$$, which converges. However, the first integral actually diverges, prompting a discussion on the validity of the comparison. Participants explored whether the inequality $$\left(x + x^2\right)^{\frac{1}{3}} \le x$$ holds for values of x greater than 1, ultimately determining that it does. The discussion highlighted the importance of correctly establishing bounds and understanding the behavior of the integrals involved.
tmt1
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I have this integral

$$\int_{1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{(x + x^2)^\frac{1}{3}} \,dx$$

I think this is smaller than

$$\int_{1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{(x^2)^\frac{1}{3}} \,dx$$

The latter converges since $p = \frac{2}{3}$ which is greater than 1. Therefore, since the first integral is smaller than the second integral it must also converge. However, the answer is that it diverges. What is the error in my logic?
 
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Well for starters, is it really true that $$\frac{2}{3}>1$$?

We know that:

$$\int_1^{\infty}\frac{1}{x}\,dx$$ diverges. So, what we can do is try to show that:

$$\left(x+x^2\right)^{\frac{1}{3}}\le x$$ where $$1\le a\le x$$
 
MarkFL said:
Well for starters, is it really true that $$\frac{2}{3}>1$$?

We know that:

$$\int_1^{\infty}\frac{1}{x}\,dx$$ diverges. So, what we can do is try to show that:

$$\left(x+x^2\right)^{\frac{1}{3}}\le x$$ where $$1\le a\le x$$

If I raise each side to the power of 3, I get:

$$x + x^2 \le x^3$$

Is that enough proof that $$\left(x+x^2\right)^{\frac{1}{3}}\le x$$?
 
tmt said:
If I raise each side to the power of 3, I get:

$$x + x^2 \le x^3$$

Is that enough proof that $$\left(x+x^2\right)^{\frac{1}{3}}\le x$$?

Since $1<x$, we can divide through by $x$ and then arrange as follows:

$$x^2-x-1\ge0$$

Where is this true?
 
MarkFL said:
Since $1<x$, we can divide through by $x$ and then arrange as follows:

$$x^2-x-1\ge0$$

Where is this true?

So

$$x^2-x\ge 1$$

and

$$x(x - 1)\ge 1$$

so it looks like this is true whenever x is greater than 1.
 
What about $$x=\frac{3}{2}$$?

What are the roots of $x^2-x-1=0$?
 
MarkFL said:
Since $1<x$, we can divide through by $x$ and then arrange as follows:

$$x^2-x-1\ge0$$

Where is this true?

I'm having trouble reasoning about this.

We need to make this assertion $(x + x^2)^{\frac{1}{3}} \le x$ where $1 \le a \le x$. (What is $a$ here, by the way?).

Since $x > 1$, we can do:

$ \frac{(x + x^2)^{\frac{1}{3}}}{x} \le \frac{x}{x}$

Or $ \frac{(x + x^2)^{\frac{1}{3}}}{x} \le 1$

But how can we evaluate $\frac{(x + x^2)^{\frac{1}{3}}}{x}$?
 

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