Differentiability of f o g at the origin

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The discussion centers on the differentiability of the composition of functions \( f \) and \( g \) at the origin, where \( f: \mathbb{R}^2 \to \mathbb{R} \) is defined as \( f(x, y) = \frac{x^3}{x^2 + y^2} \) for \((x,y) \neq (0,0)\) and \( f(0,0) = 0 \). It is established that \( f \circ g \) is differentiable at the origin for any curve \( g \) passing through the origin, despite \( f \) itself being non-differentiable at that point. The limit definition of differentiability is employed to analyze the behavior of \( f(g(h)) \) as \( h \) approaches zero, leading to challenges in evaluating the partial derivatives of \( f \) with respect to the components of \( g \).

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let f : R^2 -> R be defined as:
f = x^3 / (x^2 + y^2) if (x,y) =/= 0
and 0 if (x,y) = 0.

let g be any curve in R^2 that passes through the origin. then show that f o g is differentiable while f itself is not.

so i have that g: R -> R^2 and using the definition of the limit i have lim (h->0) [f(g(h)) - f(g(0)) - mh]/h which we want to show should = 0. i am evaluating the derivative at 0 because at any other point where (x,y) =/= 0 then f is differentiable so the only trouble spot comes from (x,y) = 0.

so I'm assuming g: R -> R^2 is given by g(t) = (u(t), v(t)) so D(fog) = f_u * u'(t) + f_v * v'(t). so at 0 it would be m = D(fog(0)) = f_u(0) * u'(0) + f_v(0) * v'(0). i am not quite sure what to do next. i have the partial of f with respect to u which i don't know how to evaluate. trying to use the limit definition, f(g(h)) would become u(h)^3 / ((u(h)^2 + v(h)^2) which doesn't look promising. i know that at least one of u(t) or v(t) is not constant because if they both were, it would just be a point. so the quotient should be some function of h but there is no telling what kind of function of h it is and whether or not it will allow the limit to be 0. is the limit definition the way to go with this problem?

any help is greatly appreciated. thanks.
 
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i am still having trouble with this problem. the only way i know of to show a function is differentiable is to use the limit definition which is lim (h->0) 1/h (f(x+h)-f(x)-Df(x)(h)) = 0. when checking if f(g(t)) satisfies this requirement, f(g(0)) is 0 obviously but i have trouble showing that f(g(h)) = Df(g(0))(h). because g is arbitrary, i don't see a way i can make sense of the derivative of it since it can be many different things. how would one attack this problem? am i missing something important?
 

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