Differentiable implies continuous

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The discussion centers on the proof that differentiability implies continuity, with participants addressing issues related to LaTeX formatting and proof clarity. A key point made is that for a function to be differentiable at a point, the limit defining the derivative must exist, which leads to the conclusion that the function must also be continuous at that point. Participants clarify that while using limits, one must be cautious about the denominator approaching zero, and they suggest that a rigorous proof does not necessarily require epsilon-delta arguments. The conversation concludes with an affirmation that the proof is essentially complete once the limit properties are correctly applied. Understanding these concepts is crucial for grasping the relationship between differentiability and continuity.
dmatador
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Is this a homework problem?

This is really hard to read, with everything on one line, and the malformed fraction near the beginning. To make it more readable, use a pair of tex and /tex tags for each line.
 
It wasn't responding to any of the changes I was making to the Latex code and I gave up. I'm not sure what was wrong. And it wasn't a homework problem. I've never taken analysis. I was just wondering if this proof works after reading the theorem.
 
Often you will find that you need to click on your web-reader's "refresh" button when you edit LaTex. Why it doesn't refresh when you save the edit, I don't know.

I cannot, of course, see what you have deleted so I cannot directly answer your question (which apparently is about a specific proof that "differentiable implies continuous") but I can say this:
f(x) is differentiable at x= a if and only if
\lim_{h\to 0}\frac{f(a+ h)- f(a)}{h}
exists. Since the denominator necessarily goes to 0, in order that the limit exist, the numerator must also go to 0: we must have
\lim_{h\to 0} f(a+h)- f(a)= 0
If we let a+h= x then as h goes to 0, x goes to a so that is the same as
\lim_{x\to a}f(x)- f(a)= 0

which is the same as
\lim_{x\to a} f(x)= f(a)
For that to be true, we must have
1) \lim_{x\to a} f(x) exist
2) f(a) exist
3) the two are equal
which is precisely the definition of "continuous at x= a".
 
<br /> f&#039;(c) = \lim_{x\to c}\frac{f(x) - f(c)}{x - c}<br /> ...since it is differentiable at any arbitrary point.

<br /> f&#039;(c) = \frac{\lim_{x\to c}f(x) - \lim_{x\to c}f(c)}{\lim_{x\to c}(x - c)}<br /> ...using properties of the limit (i think).

<br /> f&#039;(c) * \lim_{x\to c}(x - c) = f&#039;(c) * 0 = 0 = \lim_{x\to c}f(x) - \lim_{x\to c}f(c)<br /> ...the limit of x - c is 0. The limit of f(c) is f(c) so this implies that

<br /> \lim_{x\to c}f(x) = f(c) <br /> which proves continuity.

I know this can't be right. I am just trying to learn some of this. Also, would a more rigorous proof than the one you posted be at all better? I've seen some very confusing ones with deltas and epsilons and wonder if this is overkill?
 
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dmatador said:
<br /> f&#039;(c) = \lim_{x\to c}\frac{f(x) - f(c)}{x - c}<br /> ...since it is differentiable at any arbitrary point.

<br /> f&#039;(c) = \frac{\lim_{x\to c}f(x) - \lim_{x\to c}f(c)}{\lim_{x\to c}(x - c)}<br /> ...using properties of the limit (i think).
This does not work, as the limit of the denominator is 0. Distributing the limit over a quotient is only valid if the limit exists and the limit of the denominator is non-zero. However, you can get a working proof if you multiply both sides by \lim_{x\rightarrow c} x - c.
Going down to the level of deltas and epsilons is not necessary. There is a proof using only what you know about the definition of the derivative at a point, and the definition of continuous at a point, without explicitly using epsilon-delta form.
 
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slider142 said:
This does not work, as the limit of the denominator is 0. Distributing the limit over a quotient is only valid if the limit exists and the limit of the denominator is non-zero. However, you can get a working proof if you multiply both sides by \lim_{x\rightarrow c} x - c.

OK, I think I see that. After that you can pull out the limit sign and cancel out the x - c and are left with 0 = \lim_{x\to c}f(x) - f(c). The proof is basically done.
 
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dmatador said:
OK, I think I see that. After that you can pull out the limit sign and cancel out the x - c and are left with 0 = \lim_{x\to c}f(x) - f(c). The proof is basically done.

Yep. Good job.
 

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