Dirac equation in a central field (Schiff)

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a problem related to the Dirac equation as presented in Quantum Mechanics by Schiff. The original poster is attempting to understand a specific equation involving angular momentum operators and their relation to Pauli matrices.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster examines the equality involving the square of angular momentum and Pauli matrices, expressing confusion over a missing factor in their derivation. Some participants question the simplifications made in the calculations, particularly regarding the products of the Pauli matrices.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the mathematical details of the problem. One participant provides insight that helps clarify the original poster's confusion, suggesting a reevaluation of certain terms in the calculations. The discussion appears to be productive, with participants collaboratively exploring the reasoning behind the equations.

Contextual Notes

The original poster notes that the problem is not strictly a homework question but fits within the context of understanding advanced quantum mechanics concepts. There is an emphasis on the properties of the Pauli matrices and their implications in the context of angular momentum operators.

DrClaude
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Not really a homework problem, but I think it fits better in this section.

Homework Statement


I'm having a problem with eq. (53.12) in the book Quantum Mechanics by Schiff. In the context of the Dirac equation, we have
$$
\hbar^2 k^2 = (\vec{\sigma}' \cdot \vec{L})^2 + 2\hbar (\vec{\sigma}' \cdot \vec{L}) + \hbar^2 = (\vec{L} + \frac{1}{2} \hbar \vec{\sigma}')^2 + \frac{1}{4} \hbar^2
$$
The first equality is fine, it is the second one that I can't reproduce. The point of the equation is to recover ##(\vec{L} + \frac{1}{2} \hbar \vec{\sigma}')^2 = (\vec{L} + \vec{S})^2 = \vec{J}^2##.

Homework Equations


$$
\vec{\sigma}' = ( \sigma_x', \sigma_y', \sigma_z')
$$
where the ##\sigma_i'## are ##4\times4## matrices related to the Pauli matrices ##\sigma_i## through
$$
\sigma_i' \equiv \begin{pmatrix} \sigma_i & 0 \\ 0 & \sigma_i \end{pmatrix}
$$
##\vec{L}## is the orbital angular momentum (actually an operator, but that's not important in the present context).

The Attempt at a Solution


I start by looking at the square term on the LHS:
$$
\begin{array}{}
(\vec{\sigma}' \cdot \vec{L})^2 &= ( \sigma_x' L_x + \sigma_y' L_y + \sigma_z' L_z)^2 \\
&= (\sigma_x')^2 L_x^2 + \sigma_x' \sigma_y' L_x L_y + \sigma_x' \sigma_z' L_x L_z \\
&\quad + \sigma_y' \sigma_x' L_y L_x + (\sigma_y')^2 L_y^2 + \sigma_y' \sigma_z' L_y L_z \\
& \quad + \sigma_z' \sigma_x' L_z L_x + \sigma_z' \sigma_y' L_z L_y + (\sigma_z')^2 L_z^2 \\
&= L_x^2 \mathbf{1} + L_y^2 \mathbf{1} + L_z^2 \mathbf{1} = \vec{L}^2
\end{array}
$$
where I have used the properties of the Pauli matrices, namely ##\sigma_i^2 = \mathbf{1}##, with ##\mathbf{1}## the identity matrix, and ##\sigma_i \sigma_j + \sigma_j \sigma_i = 2\delta_{ij}##.

Now, for the square term on the RHS:
$$
\begin{array}{}
(\vec{L} + \frac{1}{2} \hbar \vec{\sigma}')^2 &= \vec{L} \cdot \vec{L} + \frac{1}{2} \hbar \vec{L} \cdot \vec{\sigma}' + \frac{1}{2} \hbar \vec{\sigma}' \cdot \vec{L} + \frac{1}{4} \hbar^2 \vec{\sigma}' \cdot \vec{\sigma}' \\
&= \vec{L}^2 + \hbar \vec{\sigma}' \cdot \vec{L} + \frac{1}{4} \hbar^2 (\sigma_x^2 + \sigma_y^2 + \sigma_z^2) \\
&= \vec{L}^2 + \hbar \vec{\sigma}' \cdot \vec{L} + \frac{3}{4} \hbar^2
\end{array}
$$

Putting all this together, I can rewrite the original equality as
$$
\vec{L}^2 + 2\hbar (\vec{\sigma}' \cdot \vec{L}) + \hbar^2 = \vec{L}^2 + \hbar (\vec{\sigma}' \cdot \vec{L}) + \hbar^2
$$
There is a factor 2 missing in the RHS that I can't find.
 
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Consider $$ \sigma_x' \sigma_y' L_x L_y + \sigma_y' \sigma_x' L_y L_x $$ Does this reduce to zero or something else?
 
TSny said:
Consider $$ \sigma_x' \sigma_y' L_x L_y + \sigma_y' \sigma_x' L_y L_x $$ Does this reduce to zero or something else?
I was so concentrated on the ##\sigma'## that I only saw ##\sigma_x' \sigma_y' + \sigma_y' \sigma_x' = 0##. But of course
$$
\begin{array}{}
\sigma_x' \sigma_y' L_x L_y + \sigma_y' \sigma_x' L_y L_x &= i \sigma_z' L_x L_y - i \sigma_z' L_y L_x \\
&= i \sigma_z' (L_x L_y - L_y L_x) \\
&= i \sigma_z' (i \hbar L_z) =-\hbar \sigma_z' L_z
\end{array}
$$
and so on, such that
\begin{array}{}
(\vec{\sigma}' \cdot \vec{L})^2 &= ( \sigma_x' L_x + \sigma_y' L_y + \sigma_z' L_z)^2 \\
&= (\sigma_x')^2 L_x^2 + \sigma_x' \sigma_y' L_x L_y + \sigma_x' \sigma_z' L_x L_z \\
&\quad + \sigma_y' \sigma_x' L_y L_x + (\sigma_y')^2 L_y^2 + \sigma_y' \sigma_z' L_y L_z \\
& \quad + \sigma_z' \sigma_x' L_z L_x + \sigma_z' \sigma_y' L_z L_y + (\sigma_z')^2 L_z^2 \\
&= (L_x^2 + L_y^2 + L_z^2) \mathbf{1} - \hbar ( \sigma_x' L_x + \sigma_y' L_y + \sigma_z' L_z)\\
&= \vec{L}^2 - \hbar ( \vec{\sigma}' \cdot \vec{L}),
\end{array}
leading to the correct equality.

Thanks a lot for pointing me in the right direction.
 
OK. Good.
 

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