Dirac Expression for Vector Potential of a Magnetic Monopole Problem

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on calculating the vector potential \(\vec{A}(\vec{x})\) for a magnetic monopole, specifically using the equation \(\vec{A}(\vec{x}) = \frac{g}{4\pi} \int_{-\infty}^{0} \frac{dz' \hat{z} \times (\vec{x} - z' \hat{z})}{\vert \vec{x} - z' \hat{z} \vert ^{3}}\). The components of the vector potential are identified as \(A_{r} = 0\), \(A_{\theta} = 0\), and \(A_{\phi} = \frac{g}{4 \pi} \frac{\tan{\theta / 2}}{R}\). The solution involves evaluating the integral and confirming its consistency with the vector potential expressed in spherical coordinates, while also considering the local form of Maxwell's equations in magnetostatics.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of vector calculus and spherical coordinates
  • Familiarity with Maxwell's equations in magnetostatics
  • Knowledge of magnetic monopoles and Dirac strings
  • Ability to evaluate integrals involving vector fields
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the derivation of the vector potential for magnetic monopoles
  • Learn about the implications of the Dirac string in gauge theory
  • Explore the paper by T. T. Wu and C. N. Yang on nonintegrable phase factors
  • Investigate the mathematical techniques for evaluating vector integrals in electromagnetism
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Physicists, graduate students in theoretical physics, and anyone studying electromagnetism and gauge theories, particularly in the context of magnetic monopoles.

Harry134
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Hi,

Homework Statement


Consider the vector potential, \vec{A}(\vec{x}), below. The problem is to calculate \vec{A}(\vec{x}) explictly, and show that it has components A_{r}, A_{\theta} and A_{\phi}


Homework Equations


\vec{A}(\vec{x}) = \frac{g}{4\pi} \int_{-\infty}^{0} \frac{dz' \hat{z} \times (\vec{x} - z' \hat{z})}{\vert \vec{x} - z' \hat{z} \vert ^{3}}

A_{r} = 0, A_{\theta} = 0, A_{\phi} = \frac{g}{4 \pi} \frac{\tan{\theta / 2}}{R}

The Attempt at a Solution


This is a homework problem and I have seen the solution to it. However, I do not understand any of the solution or even where to start the problem.

Thanks
 
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Just evaulate the integral and check whether it coincides with what's given as the vector potential in terms of spherical coordinates.

BTW: It might be easier to work with the local form of the Maxwell equations, extended with the presence of a magnetic point charge. You only need to consider the magnetostatics equations,
\vec{\nabla} \times \vec{B}=0, \quad \vec{\nabla} \cdot \vec{B}=g \delta^{(3)}(\vec{x}).
Now except at the origin you have \vec{B}=\vec{\nabla} \times \vec{A}. So you must find a vector potential with an appropriate singularity along a semiinfinite line (the famous Dirac string) such that it reproduces the \delta-distribution singularity. In terms of \vec{A} the equations read
\vec{\nabla} \times (\vec{\nabla} \times \vec{A})=0, \quad \vec{\nabla} \cdot (\vec{\nabla} \times \vec{A})=g \delta^{(3)}(\vec{x}).

Another approach is to avoid the string and use different gauges in different regions of space along the lines of the very illuminating paper

T. T. Wu and C. N. Yang. Concept of nonintegrable phase factors and global formulation of gauge fields. Phys. Rev. D, 12:3845, 1975.
http://link.aps.org/abstract/PRD/v12/i12/p3845
 

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