- #1
Waggattack
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I need to show that P<->Q is logically equivalent to ( P ^ Q ) v ( ~P ^ ~Q)
So far I have P <-> Q is equivalent to ( ~P v Q ) ^ ( ~Q v P ) by a example
I have no idea where to go from here
So far I have P <-> Q is equivalent to ( ~P v Q ) ^ ( ~Q v P ) by a example
I have no idea where to go from here