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Discrete Math - equivalence laws

  1. Jan 25, 2010 #1
    I need to show that P<->Q is logically equivalent to ( P ^ Q ) v ( ~P ^ ~Q)

    So far I have P <-> Q is equivalent to ( ~P v Q ) ^ ( ~Q v P ) by a example

    I have no idea where to go from here
  2. jcsd
  3. Jan 26, 2010 #2


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    Hi Waggattack! :smile:
    Now use the distributive law (ie, expand). :wink:
  4. Jan 26, 2010 #3


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    Wouldn't a fairly simple "truth table" suffice?
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