Dissecting a Physics Answer Dealing with Converting to Mols

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The discussion focuses on understanding the calculation of moles from the mass loss of a gold ring over 53 years. The key point is that the mass lost (0.26 g) is divided by the atomic mass of gold (197 g/mol) to convert grams to moles, resulting in approximately 0.00132 moles. This conversion is essential because it allows for the calculation of the number of atoms using Avogadro's number. The process is similar for other elements, where the mass in grams is divided by the molar mass to find the number of moles. The explanation clarifies the relationship between mass, moles, and atomic quantities in chemistry.
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I'm attempting to understand what is going on in the solution to a problem. Heres the question and the answer:

Question:
On your wedding day your lover gives you a gold ring of mass 3.74 g. 53 years later its mass is 3.21 g. On the average how many atoms were abrated from the ring during each second of your marriage? The atomic mass of gold is 197 u.

Answer:
Step 1: 3.74-3.21 = 0.26 g lost
Step 2: 0.26g /197 g/mol = 0.001319797mols x 6.02214179x1023 atoms/mol = 7.948004393x1020atoms
Step 3: 53yrs x 365days/year x 24hours/day x 60min/hr x 60 sec/min =1671408000 seconds
Step 4: 7.948004393x1020 atoms/1671408000 seconds =4.75527483x1011atoms/second

I understand everything besides step two. You are given 197 as the atomic mass unit in the question. But what do you do with this number so that it can be multiplied by avagadro's number? so basically what operations lead to 0.001319797mols?

thanks,
mysticxhobo
 
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okay i figured out what was done. the total grams of the substance was divided by the atomic mass of the substance.

.26 / 197 = .0031.. . . . .

but can someone explain why it was done this way?

thanks
 
If molar mass of iron is 56g/mol and you have 56g of iron, obviously you have

\frac {56 g}{56 \frac{g}{mol}}=1 mol

of iron. If you have 28g of iron, you have

\frac {28 g}{56 \frac{g}{mol}}=\frac 1 2 mol

and so on.
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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