Divide a Number by 0: Is it +infinite or -infinite?

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SUMMARY

Division by zero is universally defined as undefined in mathematics, regardless of whether the numerator is positive or negative. When a positive real number is divided by a value approaching zero from the positive side, the result approaches +infinity, while approaching from the negative side yields -infinity. However, the operation itself remains undefined due to the lack of a valid solution in the inverse multiplication. The discussion emphasizes that infinity is not a number, and thus division by zero cannot be assigned a numerical value.

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  • Understanding of basic arithmetic operations, specifically division.
  • Familiarity with limits in calculus, particularly the concept of approaching values.
  • Knowledge of real numbers and their properties.
  • Concept of infinity and its distinction from real numbers.
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  • Study the concept of limits in calculus, focusing on how they apply to division by values approaching zero.
  • Explore the properties of real numbers and the definitions of positive and negative numbers.
  • Investigate the implications of undefined operations in mathematics and their historical context.
  • Learn about the concept of infinity in mathematics and its role in calculus and number theory.
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Mathematicians, students studying calculus, educators teaching arithmetic and algebra, and anyone interested in the foundational principles of mathematics.

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Hey just wondering

if u divide any real number by 0 is it + infinite or - infinite

is it : +infinite when the number if positive, and -infinite when the number is negative ?
 
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Technically, division by zero is undefined; but, essentially yes, with a few modifications: dividing a positive real number by a number which approaches zero through positive values approaches +\infty. Consider the graph of y=\frac{3}{x} below:

f_3overXm_0e43f66.jpg


note that the function value (or y value) approaches +\infty as x approaches zero through positive values (from the right side of zero); but the function value (or y value) approaches -\infty as x approaches zero through negative values (from the left side of zero).
 

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yeah but i mean , is 0 positive or negative ?
or is it just undefined as u said ?
 
0 is neither positive, nor negative and division by 0 in arithmetics over reals is undefined.
 
Dividing by zero does not result in infinity, it results in undefined. Here's why:

The division operation, by definition, is the inverse of multiplication. 6/3 is equal to 2 because 2*3=6.

But if we try that with zero, we start with 0*x=6. This equation has no solution at all - there is no value of x (including infinity) that can make that equation true.

Since the multiplicative has no solution, the inverse has no solution (not even infinity).
 
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Dividing by zero is undefined. In fact when someone says a number A (positive) divided by zero, he means it is divided by an epsilon and then find the lim of the result when epsilon approaches to zero. So depending the sign of epsilon, the result can be + infinitive or - infinitive. I mean epsilon can approache zero origine either from the left or from the right then we have -0 or +0.
 
haiha said:
Dividing by zero is undefined. In fact when someone says a number A (positive) divided by zero, he means it is divided by an epsilon and then find the lim of the result when epsilon approaches to zero.
Does he mean that? I don't think so..
SHOULD he mean that? He certainly should not.
 
I don't understand why some people are obstinate about undefined operations. Mathematics is not nature made, it's man made, and man dictates its functioning. How we define our numbers and their arithmetic makes the expression x / 0 irrelevant. It does not mean anything.
 
INFINITY IS NOT A NUMBER! Thus we cannot define dividion with zero. To prove that infinity is not a number
let suppose
inf = 1/0;
then 0* inf = 1,
but 0 = 1 * 0 = 0 * (0 * inf ) = (0 * 0 ) * inf = inf * 0 = 1
Contradiction.
Thus division with zero is still remain undefined.
 
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  • #10
dextercioby: 0 is neither positive, nor negative and division by 0 in arithmetics over reals is undefined.

The standard proceedure with historians is to go from 1BC to 1AD, thus 1000AD is 999 years after 1 BC. If you consider BC to be negative and AD to be positive, well then, as you see here, there is no such thing as year 0, so it can not be positive or negative in this system.
 
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  • #11
robert Ihnot said:
The standard proceedure with historians is to go from 1BC to 1AD, thus 1000AD is 999 years after 1 BC. If you consider BC to be negative and AD to be positive, well then, as you see here, there is no such thing as year 0, so it can not be positive or negative in this system.
What does that have to do with anything? :confused:
 
  • #12
Hurkyl: What does that have to do with anything?

i am sorry if this is troublesome, i thought it was a joke. I could have added, it does illustrate the fact that 0 was not accepted by early historians, and so the tradition just continued. It is the reason why we are now in the 21st Century, but in the year 2007.
 
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  • #13
Werg22 said:
I don't understand why some people are obstinate about undefined operations. Mathematics is not nature made, it's man made, and man dictates its functioning. How we define our numbers and their arithmetic makes the expression x / 0 irrelevant. It does not mean anything.

Yes- it does not mean anything because it is not defined to be anything- it is undefined. When you refer to people being "obstinate" about undefined operations, exactly what do you mean?
 
  • #14
Werg22 said:
I don't understand why some people are obstinate about undefined operations. Mathematics is not nature made, it's man made, and man dictates its functioning. How we define our numbers and their arithmetic makes the expression x / 0 irrelevant. It does not mean anything.

But simply declaring that "it is undefined because we say so" is not a satisfactory answer.

There IS a good, logical reason why it is undefined, and it can be shown, as posts 5 and 9.
 
  • #15
DaveC426913 said:
But simply declaring that "it is undefined because we say so" is not a satisfactory answer.

There IS a good, logical reason why it is undefined, and it can be shown, as posts 5 and 9.
There are two separate issues here.


"It is (un)defined because we say so" is essentially the only correct answer to the question "Is it defined?" There is no higher reason for it -- either an expression syntactically satisfies the requirements of a definition, or it does not.

1/0 is undefined (for real division) precisely because this expression fails to satisfy the requirement that the dividend is a real number and the divisor is a nonzero real number. Similarly, if x is a variable denoting a real number, then x/x is undefined. (y/y would be defined if y is a variable denoting a nonzero real number, though)



You are talking about the reason why we would ever have chosen to define division this way. There is a good reason for that. (I think "practical" is more accurate than "logical", though) But the reasons for choosing the definition are entirely irrelevant to the question of what is or is not defined.
 
  • #16
Why would you insist that we defined it a certain way before there was a reason to need it to be that way? Isn't that putting the cart before the horse? Or a fabulously lucky premonition?

Surely, the historical order of occurrence is:
1] We "invent" division (as the inverse of multiplcation)
2] We realize that dividing by zero is problematic
3] We put in place a rule so as not to cause problems
 
  • #17
DaveC426913 said:
Why would you insist that we defined it a certain way before there was a reason to need it to be that way?
I'm not. There is a difference between the question

"Why is 1/0 undefined?"

and the question

"Why did we define division so that 1/0 is undefined?"
 
  • #18
If we say y(a number) divided by x as x approched infity equals 0. Can we say 0 times x as x approches infity equals Y.
Does division by 0 is undefined for only real numbers or all complex numbers.
 
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  • #19
minase said:
y divided by x as x approched infity equals 0

This doesn't make sense. I will assume you meant to say:

"The limit of y divided by x, as x approaches infinity, equals 0"

or equivalently

"y divided by x approaches 0 as x approaches infinity"



Can we say 0 times x as x approches infity equals Y.

Similarly, I will assume you meant to say

"The limit of 0 times x, as x approaches infinity, equals y"

or equivalently

"0 times x approaches y as x approaches infinity"



The second statement does not follow (directly or indirectly) from the first. The second statement is true iff y = 0.
 
  • #20
Can you use the same rule for limits as an ordinary equation y/x=0, 0*x=Y.
 
  • #21
"If we say y(a number) divided by x as x approched infity equals 0. Can we say 0 times x as x approches infity equals Y."
"limit of y/x, as x goes to infinity, y fixed, equals 0" is only true if y is not 0.

No, we cannot say "0*x, as x approaches infinity equals y". 0*x for any real x is 0 so the limit is 0.
 
  • #22
When we did integration isn't it the same thing what we were doing when adding up all the rectangles. The sum of all the rectangles as dx approches 0. Sorry i am a bit confused. Math is not my strongest subject.
 
  • #23
No, it's not at all the same thing.
 
  • #25
ZioX said:
Don't you guys know? 1/0 = infinity and 0^0=0/0 = golden ratio. How poetic!

http://www.bbc.co.uk/berkshire/content/articles/2006/12/06/divide_zero_feature.shtml

I shed a tear for those kiddies learning such trash.

No, we don't know that because it isn't true. "infinity" is not a number so 1/0= infinity is non-sense. The golden ratio is a number but neither 00 nor 0/0 is so that last statement is false.

Are you referring to us kiddies having to read your trash?

(I just went and looked at the website- Ah, you were being sarcastic! Sorry about that.)
 
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