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the antiderivative of $$\frac{1}{x}$$ is $$ln \vert x \vert $$.

If I then consider the expression $$ (x-a) ln (\vert x-a\vert)-x $$ and compute the first derivative I obtain $$ ln (\vert x-a \vert)$$.

If I then consider the equivalent expression $$ (x-a) ln (\vert a -x\vert)-x $$ I do not get the same result, where is my mistake??

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# Do not get Logarithmic antiderivatives

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