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Do not get Logarithmic antiderivatives

  1. May 28, 2013 #1
    Dear All,

    the antiderivative of $$\frac{1}{x}$$ is $$ln \vert x \vert $$.
    If I then consider the expression $$ (x-a) ln (\vert x-a\vert)-x $$ and compute the first derivative I obtain $$ ln (\vert x-a \vert)$$.
    If I then consider the equivalent expression $$ (x-a) ln (\vert a -x\vert)-x $$ I do not get the same result, where is my mistake??
  2. jcsd
  3. May 28, 2013 #2


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    Science Advisor

    We can't answer that unless you show us what answer you got. And your working.
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