Do Products of L^2 Functions Converge in the Integral?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the convergence of integrals involving products of functions in L² spaces. Participants explore whether the limit of the integral of the product of a sequence of functions converging strongly to another function equals the integral of the product of that limit function with two other functions, all within the context of bounded subsets of \(\mathbb{R}^2\).

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions whether \(\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} \int_{K} f_n g h = \int_{K} f g h\) holds true under the given conditions.
  • Another participant notes that since \(g, h \in L^2\), the product \(gh\) is in \(L^1\) by Hölder's inequality, suggesting that the integral \(\int_K fgh\) is well-defined.
  • A subsequent reply seeks clarification on whether the previous statement was a question, indicating some confusion about the implications of the integrability of the product.
  • It is asserted that while \(g, h \in L^2\) implies \(gh \in L^1\), the product of three functions in \(L^2\) may not necessarily be integrable, highlighting that \(L^2\) is not closed under multiplication.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express uncertainty regarding the well-defined nature of the integral \(\int_K fgh\) and whether the limit of the integrals converges as proposed. There is no consensus on the implications of the product of functions in \(L^2\) spaces.

Contextual Notes

There are limitations regarding the assumptions about the integrability of products of functions in \(L^2\) spaces, particularly when considering multiple functions. The discussion does not resolve whether the integral is well-defined under the stated conditions.

NSAC
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Hi i have a question about L^2 spaces and convergence.
Here it goes:
Let K\subset \mathbb{R}^2 be bounded.
Let g,h\in L^2(K), and a sequence f_n\in L^2(K) such that f_n converges strongly to f\in L^2.
Is it true that \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} \int_{K} f_n g h = \int_{K} f g h? If it is how?
Thank you.
 
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g,h \in L^2, then gh\in L^1 by Holder inequality.

and so I do not know the integral \int_K fgh is well-defined?
 
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zhangzujin said:
and so I do not know the integral \int_K fgh is well-defined?

I didn't get what you mean. Are you asking it as a question?
 
zhangzujin said:
g,h \in L^2, then gh\in L^1 by Holder inequality.

and so I do not know the integral \int_K fgh is well-defined?
Yes. L^2 consists of functions whose square is integrable. The product of any two such functions is integrable but the product of three of them may not be.
(L^2 is not closed under multiplication.)
 

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