russdot Messages 15 Reaction score 0 Thread starter Oct 26, 2009 #1 If A is an operator, is it correct/allowed to say: [tex]Ae^{iA} = e^{iA}A[/tex] Thanks
Ben Niehoff Science Advisor Gold Member Messages 1,891 Reaction score 170 Oct 26, 2009 #2 Think of how [itex]e^{A}[/itex] is defined.
russdot Messages 15 Reaction score 0 Oct 26, 2009 #3 Ah yes, so since [tex]e^{A}[/tex] is defined with a power series [tex]e^{A} = 1 + A + \frac{A^{2}}{2!} + \frac{A^{3}}{3!} + ...[/tex] and A commutes with itself then A would commute with [tex]e^{A}[/tex] Thanks!
Ah yes, so since [tex]e^{A}[/tex] is defined with a power series [tex]e^{A} = 1 + A + \frac{A^{2}}{2!} + \frac{A^{3}}{3!} + ...[/tex] and A commutes with itself then A would commute with [tex]e^{A}[/tex] Thanks!