# Does additivity apply to Fourier transform of the wave function

1. Sep 19, 2010

### Heimisson

I was wondering if this is correct:

$$\phi$$(k-a)=$$\phi$$(k)-$$\phi$$(a)

Where k=p/h (h bar that is) and a is some constant and $$\phi$$ is the Fourier transform of a wave function (momentum function).

I know that if I had some real formula for $$\phi$$ I could just test this but the problem isn't like that.

I fairly recently started studying quantum mechanics so I'm still in that stage of having a bit of trouble connecting the physics and mathematics.

thanks

2. Sep 19, 2010

### kuruman

A typical wavefunction is a plane wave expressed as eikx. Is

eik(x-a) = eikx - eika?

3. Sep 21, 2010

### Heimisson

this was a stupid question...never mind