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Does additivity apply to Fourier transform of the wave function

  1. Sep 19, 2010 #1
    I was wondering if this is correct:


    Where k=p/h (h bar that is) and a is some constant and [tex]\phi[/tex] is the Fourier transform of a wave function (momentum function).

    I know that if I had some real formula for [tex]\phi[/tex] I could just test this but the problem isn't like that.

    I fairly recently started studying quantum mechanics so I'm still in that stage of having a bit of trouble connecting the physics and mathematics.

  2. jcsd
  3. Sep 19, 2010 #2


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    A typical wavefunction is a plane wave expressed as eikx. Is

    eik(x-a) = eikx - eika?
  4. Sep 21, 2010 #3
    this was a stupid question...never mind
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