Does additivity apply to Fourier transform of the wave function

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the additivity property of the Fourier transform in quantum mechanics, specifically questioning the relationship \(\phi(k-a) = \phi(k) - \phi(a)\). The user references the momentum function \(\phi\) and the typical wavefunction expressed as \(e^{ikx}\). The inquiry highlights a common confusion among beginners in connecting mathematical expressions with physical concepts in quantum mechanics.

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Heimisson
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I was wondering if this is correct:

[tex]\phi[/tex](k-a)=[tex]\phi[/tex](k)-[tex]\phi[/tex](a)

Where k=p/h (h bar that is) and a is some constant and [tex]\phi[/tex] is the Fourier transform of a wave function (momentum function).

I know that if I had some real formula for [tex]\phi[/tex] I could just test this but the problem isn't like that.

I fairly recently started studying quantum mechanics so I'm still in that stage of having a bit of trouble connecting the physics and mathematics.

thanks
 
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A typical wavefunction is a plane wave expressed as eikx. Is

eik(x-a) = eikx - eika?
 
this was a stupid question...never mind
 

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