- #1

Heimisson

- 44

- 0

[tex]\phi[/tex](k-a)=[tex]\phi[/tex](k)-[tex]\phi[/tex](a)

Where k=p/h (h bar that is) and a is some constant and [tex]\phi[/tex] is the Fourier transform of a wave function (momentum function).

I know that if I had some real formula for [tex]\phi[/tex] I could just test this but the problem isn't like that.

I fairly recently started studying quantum mechanics so I'm still in that stage of having a bit of trouble connecting the physics and mathematics.

thanks