Having bounded set ##U\subset\mathbb{R}^n## with ##C^1## boundary ##\partial U## and a function ##g\in C^2(\partial U)##, does one automatically have ##g\in L^2(\partial U)##?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

I don't need a proof/explanation, yes/no answer is sufficient.

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**

Join Physics Forums Today!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Does being in C2 imply being in L2 for a function?

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**