Does logic hold true outside our reality (spacetime)?

Click For Summary

Discussion Overview

The discussion centers around the nature of logic and its applicability outside our universe, contrasting it with the laws of physics that are considered unique to our spacetime. Participants explore whether logical principles, such as the transitive property of inequalities, hold true in contexts beyond our reality.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions whether logic, unlike the laws of physics, holds true outside our universe, using the example of transitive inequalities (if x>y and z>x, then z>y).
  • Another participant notes that logic is dependent on axioms, suggesting that different axioms could lead to different conclusions, such as proposing an alternative axiom that leads to y>z instead of z>y.
  • A later reply indicates a mixed response, suggesting both agreement and disagreement with the initial premise.
  • One participant expresses concern that discussions about concepts "outside our universe" are too speculative, leading to the closure of the thread.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the nature of logic in relation to the universe, with some supporting the idea that logic may not be universally applicable while others challenge this notion. The discussion remains unresolved, particularly regarding the implications of axioms on logical conclusions.

Contextual Notes

The discussion highlights limitations in assumptions about the universality of logic and the dependence on specific axioms, which may not be universally accepted or applicable.

mitcho
Messages
30
Reaction score
0
We know that the laws of physics are unique to our universe, that is they only hold true in our spacetime. My question is about logic and if logic holds true outside our universe unlike the laws of physics. For example, if we say that x>y and z>x then we can conclude that z>y is true by logic. Does this logic still true? Why/why not?
Thanks.
 
Astronomy news on Phys.org
mitcho said:
We know that the laws of physics are unique to our universe, that is they only hold true in our spacetime. My question is about logic and if logic holds true outside our universe unlike the laws of physics. For example, if we say that x>y and z>x then we can conclude that z>y is true by logic. Does this logic still true? Why/why not?
Thanks.

Even in our universe logic depends on axioms. The example you gave:
if we say that x>y and z>x then we can conclude that z>y is true

is an axiom that can be used do prove some theorems.

But you can use another axiom:

if x>y and z>x then y>z is true

This axiom would be used to prove another set of theorems.

An example:

In arithmetic 1 + 1 = 2.

In boolean algebra 1 + 1 = 1.
 
Yes and no.
 
I'm sorry, but discussions of things "outside our universe" are too speculative for the PF. Thread closed.
 

Similar threads

Graduate Multiverse theory with impossible universes?
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
3K
Undergrad The logical impossibility of proving that indeterminism is true?
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
1K
Undergrad What does it mean that symmetries do not hold globally?
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
High School Conflict between the conservation of matter and the rapid expansion of our universe
  • · Replies 18 ·
Replies
18
Views
2K
Graduate Alternative topology of our 3D space
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
Graduate Tensors in null basis
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
2K
Strict forum rules vs learning science
  • · Replies 25 ·
Replies
25
Views
3K
High School Does anybody think that there is an underlying reality?
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
So what are dreams made of? How do they differ from our waking reality?
  • · Replies 15 ·
Replies
15
Views
5K
Undergrad How Does the Balloon Analogy Explain the Expansion of the Universe?
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K