# Does logic hold true outside our reality (spacetime)?

## Main Question or Discussion Point

We know that the laws of physics are unique to our universe, that is they only hold true in our spacetime. My question is about logic and if logic holds true outside our universe unlike the laws of physics. For example, if we say that x>y and z>x then we can conclude that z>y is true by logic. Does this logic still true? Why/why not?
Thanks.

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CEL
We know that the laws of physics are unique to our universe, that is they only hold true in our spacetime. My question is about logic and if logic holds true outside our universe unlike the laws of physics. For example, if we say that x>y and z>x then we can conclude that z>y is true by logic. Does this logic still true? Why/why not?
Thanks.
Even in our universe logic depends on axioms. The example you gave:
if we say that x>y and z>x then we can conclude that z>y is true
is an axiom that can be used do prove some theorems.

But you can use another axiom:

if x>y and z>x then y>z is true

This axiom would be used to prove another set of theorems.

An example:

In arithmetic 1 + 1 = 2.

In boolean algebra 1 + 1 = 1.

Yes and no.

berkeman
Mentor
I'm sorry, but discussions of things "outside our universe" are too speculative for the PF. Thread closed.