Does operator L^2 commute with spherical harmonics?

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The discussion centers on whether the operator L^2 commutes with spherical harmonics, specifically questioning a teacher's assertion that the commutator is zero because spherical harmonics are eigenfunctions of L^2. The poster provides a calculation showing that the commutator [L^2, Y_20] is not zero, suggesting a misunderstanding of the relationship between operators and their eigenfunctions. Another participant offers a counterexample using the operator L_z, demonstrating that commutation must be verified through the commutator's algebraic rules. The overall conclusion is that the initial claim regarding commutation is incorrect.
Feelingfine
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Homework Statement
Does operator L^2 commute with spherical harmonics?
Relevant Equations
[L^2 , Y_lm] = ?
Y_lm are the spherical harmonics.
My teacher said me this commutator is zero because the spherical harmonics are eigenfunctions of L^2. Actually, he said that any operator must commute with its eigenfunctions.

I tried an example: [L^2,Y_20] expressing L^2 on spherical coordinates and I determined this commutator is not zero.

[L^2, Y_20]F = L^2(Y_20F) - Y_20(L^2F) = Y_20(L^2F) + F(L^2Y_20) - Y_20(L^2F) = F(L^2Y_20) , so [L^2, Y_20] = (L^2Y_20) what it's not equal to zero.

I think what he said it's wrong, actually I think it's almost obvious. I don´'t see any reason an operator commutes whit its eigenfunctions (acting like operators).

Can anybody help me with this problem?
 
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Feelingfine said:
Homework Statement:: Does operator L^2 commute with spherical harmonics?
Relevant Equations:: [L^2 , Y_lm] = ?
Y_lm are the spherical harmonics.

My teacher said me this commutator is zero because the spherical harmonics are eigenfunctions of L^2. Actually, he said that any operator must commute with its eigenfunctions.

I tried an example: [L^2,Y_20] expressing L^2 on spherical coordinates and I determined this commutator is not zero.

[L^2, Y_20]F = L^2(Y_20F) - Y_20(L^2F) = Y_20(L^2F) + F(L^2Y_20) - Y_20(L^2F) = F(L^2Y_20) , so [L^2, Y_20] = (L^2Y_20) what it's not equal to zero.

I think what he said it's wrong, actually I think it's almost obvious. I don´'t see any reason an operator commutes whit its eigenfunctions (acting like operators).

Can anybody help me with this problem?

It's obviously nonsense. A better counterexample is to look at ##L_z##, which is effectively ##\frac{\partial }{\partial \phi}##. And take ##Y_1^1 = \sin \theta e^{i\phi}##.

We can ignore the ##\sin \theta##. And it's easy to see that ##[L_z, e^{i\phi}I] \ne 0##.
 
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To proof whether two operators A,B commute you have to check [A,B]=0.
so,what is your mistake in this case?
If you can't see the mistake you have to check the algebraic rules of the commutator once more .

troglodyte
 

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