Does path independence of a line integral prove existence of a scalar potential?

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Mathmos6
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Homework Statement


Hi there - I'm wondering about how you can actually show the existence of a scalar potential for an irrotational vector field E - if [itex]\nabla \times E = 0[/itex] everywhere, then how does one show there exists a scalar potential [itex]\phi(x)[/itex] such that [itex]E=- \nabla \phi[/itex]?

The Attempt at a Solution


By Stokes' theorem we can see that [itex]\int_C E dx = \int_S \nabla \times E dS = 0[/itex] everywhere so our integral is path independent, but does path independence necessarily prove the existence of a scalar potential?

Thanks a lot, Mathmos6
 
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There is a well-known vector identity:

[tex]\bigtriangledown \times \bigtriangledown\phi=0[/tex]
 
Sure it does. Now pick a point A and define the potential at any point X as the path integral of E from A to X. It's well defined because of path independence.