I Does the Cosmological Principle in any way underpin Big Bang Theory?

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The discussion centers on the relationship between the Cosmological Principle and the Big Bang Theory, particularly whether the former is derived from observational data or is merely an assumption. Participants argue that the Cosmological Principle, which posits a homogeneous and isotropic universe, has been supported by observational evidence, including the redshift-distance relationship. They clarify that the Big Bang Theory does not rely on the assumption of a central point of origin, as the universe's expansion appears uniform in all directions. The conversation also touches on the implications of this principle for understanding cosmic expansion and the nature of galaxies' movement. Ultimately, the Cosmological Principle is viewed as an observation rather than an assumption, reinforcing the framework of the Big Bang Theory.
  • #31
256bits said:
what laws of physics are in question
The example I referred to violates the law of gravity.

256bits said:
The cosmological principle is based upon not a single law of physics that I am aware
The post of mine that you quoted was not about the cosmological principle. It was about the specific example proposed by the poster I responded to and the invalid claim he made based on it.

Nobody is claiming that the cosmological principle itself violates any law of physics.

256bits said:
The cosmological Principle AFAIK does not state that there is not a centre to the universe, only the implication that the universe should appear to be the same for an observer no matter where located.
You're contradicting yourself. "There is a center to the universe" means that the universe does not appear the same from everywhere.

256bits said:
if an actual centre does exist
Then the cosmological principle would be false. So your reasoning that follows, which assumes the cosmological principle is true, is obviously wrong.
 
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  • #32
PeterDonis said:
No, it's not any such example, because it contradicts the laws of physics: it assumes velocities are constant when they can't be because of gravity. An "example" that contradicts the laws of physics can't prove anything.
But if a distribution of dark energy is established such that it counteracts gravity, then it wouldn't be contradicting physical laws.
 
  • #33
Jaime Rudas said:
if a distribution of dark energy is established such that it counteracts gravity, then it wouldn't be contradicting physical laws
There is no expanding solution with this property: the solution where dark energy just "counteracts" the gravity of the matter is the Einstein static universe, which does not expand.

Please do not hijack this thread any further with these claims. If you do you will receive a warning and a thread ban.
 
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  • #34
Jaime Rudas said:
Yes, that's right, but what is in dispute isn't whether the cosmological principle holds. What is in dispute is whether or not the constancy of the velocity-distance relationship implies the cosmological principle, as seen here:

https://www.physicsforums.com/threa...underpin-big-bang-theory.1055179/post-6926218
The cosmological principle is a conjectured. The conceptual problem of cosmology is that you have to work with conjectures, derive predictions for observable effects and compare observations with these predictions, and one should be aware that all our observations are "local", i.e., we can observe only a tiny neighborhood of spacetime around the Earth.

Nevertheless through observing farther and farther away objects or rather the em. waves (and recently also the gravitational waves) we also "look to the past".

The cosmological principle is the statement that on a coarse-grained large-scale level the universe is homogeneeous and isotropic, leading to the Friedmann-Lemaitre-Robertson-Walker spacetime. The Einstein equations then tell us that the energy-momentum tensor of matter and radiation takes the form of an ideal-fluid energy-momentum tensor (+the cosmological-constant term, also dubbed "dark energy"). In standard "co-moving coordinates" with the coordinate time chosen as the proper time of an observer co-moving with this fluid,
$$\mathrm{d}s^2 =\mathrm{d} t^2 -a^2(t) \left [\frac{\mathrm{d} r^2}{1-K r^2} - r^2 (\mathrm{d} \vartheta^2 + \sin^2 \vartheta \mathrm{d} \varphi^2) \right],$$
the spatial coordinate system is chosen similar to spherical coordinates, and this of coarse "hides" the translation invariance of space, but that's only due to the coordinates. The chosen "origin" of these spherical coordinates can be an arbitrary point in this space, because no point is distinguished from any other. The same holds for the "polar axis" of the coordinate system, which can be chosen to point in any direction you like since space doesn't distinguish any direction in this spacetime model.

An observer in the origin at rest wrt. this reference frame (a "fundamental observer") sees the distance between him and a distant galaxy increasing with the scale factor ##a## and he also sees a red-shift of light emitted from a far distant galaxy. As should be clear, the interpretation of this Hubble-Lemaitre redshift as a "Doppler shift" is only approximately right for not too far-distant objects.

For a nice pedagogical paper, see

https://doi.org/10.1119/1.1446856
 

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