- #1
tjkubo
- 42
- 0
I know that the improper integral
[itex]
\int_2^\infty \left(\frac{1}{x\log^2x}\right)^p \, dx
[/itex]
converges for p=1, but does it diverge for p>1? How do you show this?
[itex]
\int_2^\infty \left(\frac{1}{x\log^2x}\right)^p \, dx
[/itex]
converges for p=1, but does it diverge for p>1? How do you show this?