Does the Mean Value of a Function Tend to Zero as T Increases to Infinity?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the behavior of the mean value of a function as T approaches infinity, specifically analyzing the expression \(\frac{1}{T}\int_{0}^{T}f(x)dx\). Participants conclude that if this limit equals zero, it does not necessarily imply that the function f(x) approaches zero as x approaches infinity, particularly in the case of oscillating functions like \(f(x) = \sin(x)\). The integral of oscillating functions remains bounded while the denominator increases, leading to a limit of zero. This highlights the distinction between the mean value and the pointwise behavior of the function.

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zetafunction
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let be a function so [tex]\frac{1}{T}\int_{0}^{T}f(x)dx =0[/tex]

as T--->oo does it man that the function f(x) tends to ' as x--->oo what if 'f' is an oscillating function ??
 
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zetafunction said:
let be a function so [tex]\frac{1}{T}\int_{0}^{T}f(x)dx =0[/tex]

as T--->oo does it man that the function f(x) tends to ' as x--->oo
I have no clue what you mean by that. What does ' mean?

what if 'f' is an oscillating function ??
Well, did you try an example? What if f(x)= sin(x)?

The integral oscillates (and is bounded) but the denominator gets larger and larger. The limit is 0.
 
I think "zetafunction" means

[tex]\lim_{T \to \infty } \frac{1}{T} \int_{0}^{T} f(x) dx[/tex]

Just quote my post, to see how I made it.
 

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