Dismiss Notice
Join Physics Forums Today!
The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

Does this expression make sense.

  1. Jun 28, 2007 #1
    i don't know where i saw the question is does this expression (Cesaro sum ??) make sense for big lambda and positive delta

    [tex] \sum_{n \le \lambda } (1- \frac{n}{\lambda})^{\delta} \mu (n)=S( \lambda , \delta) [/tex]

    for finite lambda the S is finite the question is what would happen as lambda goes to infinity ?, does the sum converge in the sense that for lambda big.

    [tex] S \sim A+ O( \lambda ^{-b} [/tex] (b a positive real number)

    and the same for

    [tex] \sum_{n \le \lambda } (1- \frac{n}{\lambda})^{\delta} \Lambda (n)=S( \lambda , \delta) [/tex]
  2. jcsd
  3. Jun 29, 2007 #2

    matt grime

    User Avatar
    Science Advisor
    Homework Helper

    What have you tried to prove, or disprove, and how have you attempted to do it?
Know someone interested in this topic? Share this thread via Reddit, Google+, Twitter, or Facebook

Have something to add?

Similar Discussions: Does this expression make sense.
  1. Does this make sense? (Replies: 6)