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Does this expression make sense.

  1. Jun 28, 2007 #1
    i don't know where i saw the question is does this expression (Cesaro sum ??) make sense for big lambda and positive delta

    [tex] \sum_{n \le \lambda } (1- \frac{n}{\lambda})^{\delta} \mu (n)=S( \lambda , \delta) [/tex]

    for finite lambda the S is finite the question is what would happen as lambda goes to infinity ?, does the sum converge in the sense that for lambda big.

    [tex] S \sim A+ O( \lambda ^{-b} [/tex] (b a positive real number)

    and the same for

    [tex] \sum_{n \le \lambda } (1- \frac{n}{\lambda})^{\delta} \Lambda (n)=S( \lambda , \delta) [/tex]
  2. jcsd
  3. Jun 29, 2007 #2

    matt grime

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    What have you tried to prove, or disprove, and how have you attempted to do it?
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