Does This Sequence Converge Uniformly?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the convergence properties of the sequence of functions $$f_n=\sin (x)-\frac{nx}{1+n^2}$$, specifically examining pointwise and uniform convergence. Participants explore the implications of their calculations and the definitions involved in convergence.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant asserts that the sequence converges pointwise to $$f^{\star}(x)=\sin(x)$$ as $$n$$ approaches infinity.
  • Another participant questions whether the supremum of $$|f_n(x) - f^{\star}(x)|$$ for $$x \in \mathbb{R}$$ is infinity.
  • There is agreement among participants that the supremum is indeed infinity, leading to the conclusion that $$f_n$$ does not converge uniformly to $$f^{\star}$$.
  • A participant comments on a grammatical point regarding the use of "uniformly" in the context of convergence, suggesting that it should modify verbs rather than nouns.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree that the supremum is infinity and that the sequence does not converge uniformly to $$f^{\star}$$. However, the discussion includes a grammatical correction that is somewhat tangential to the main mathematical inquiry.

Contextual Notes

The discussion does not resolve the broader implications of uniform convergence or the specific conditions under which it may or may not hold, leaving some assumptions and definitions unexamined.

mathmari
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Hey! :giggle:

We have the sequence of functions $$f_n=\sin (x)-\frac{nx}{1+n^2}$$ I want to check the pointwise andthe uniform convergence.

We have that $$f^{\star}(x)=\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}f_n(x)=\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}\left (\sin (x)-\frac{nx}{1+n^2}\right )=\sin(x)$$ So $f_n(x)$ converges pointwise to$f^{\star}=\sin(x)$.
We have that $$\left |f_n(x)-f^{\star}(x)\right |=\left |\sin (x)-\frac{nx}{1+n^2}-\sin(x)\right |=\left |-\frac{nx}{1+n^2}\right |$$ We have to calculate first the supremum for $x\in \mathbb{R}$ and then the limit for $n\rightarrow \infty$.
Isn't the supremum $x\in \mathbb{R}$ the infinity? :unsure:
 
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mathmari said:
Isn't the supremum $x\in \mathbb{R}$ the infinity?
Hey mathmari!

Yes, it is. (Nod)
 
Klaas van Aarsen said:
Yes, it is. (Nod)

So $f_n$ doesn't converge uniformly to$f^{\star}$, right? :unsure:
 
mathmari said:
So $f_n$ doesn't converge uniformly to$f^{\star}$, right?

Indeed. :geek:
 
Comment on grammar: "uniformly" is an adverb and so modifies to verbs, adjectives, and other adverbs. Here "converge" is a noun and so requires the adjective "uniform".

One can ask "Does this converge uniformly?" or "Is this convergence uniform?" but not "Is this convergence uniformly".

(Yes, I realize this was probably just a typo but I couldn't help myself!)
 

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