Dyson-Wick formalism in second-order QED - trouble with derivation

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The discussion centers on the application of the Dyson-Wick formalism in second-order Quantum Electrodynamics (QED) as presented in "Quantum Field Theory" by Mandl & Shaw. The author struggles with the derivation of the S-Matrix components, particularly in the context of Compton scattering, and the manipulation of gamma matrices and normal ordering. Key equations include the interaction Hamiltonian H_{I}(x) and the Feynman propagator identity, which are critical for understanding the equivalence of the two resultant expressions derived from Wick's Theorem. The confusion arises from the treatment of indices and the justification for shuffling matrix expressions.

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Sojourner01
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I have in front of me Quantum Field Theory, Mandl & Shaw. Chapter 7 deals with the theoretical basis of Feynman Diagrams using the Dyson-Wick formalism.

The chapter begins with applying Wick's Theorem to produce six S-Matrix components with a variety of no-equal-time contractions. It then details the contribution of one:

S^{(2)}_{B}=-\frac{e^{2}}{2!}\int\frac{d^{4}}{dx_{1}}\frac{d^{4}}{dx_{2}}N(\overline{\psi}A\psi)_{x_{1}}(\overline{\psi}A\psi)_{x_{2}}+...]

LaTeX can't adequately represent contraction marks as far as I know, so imagine there's a cntraction between the first psi and the second psi-bar, and a repetition of same with a contraction between the first psi-bar and the second psi.

The derivation goes on to break this down for the case of Compton scattering by electrons; I am struggling to understand how the two complementary components for the two photon fields produce the final two equations; the contractions in each case are reduced to iS_{F\alpha\beta}(x_{1}-x_{2}) with, presumably, the A-slash 1 and 2 on each side. Somehow though the definitions of the slash operator migrate:

\gamma^{\alpha}iS_{F}(x_{1}-x_{2})\gamma^{\beta}A_{\alpha}^{-}(x_{1})A_{\beta}^{+}(x_{2})

and

\gamma^{\alpha}iS_{F}(x_{1}-x_{2})\gamma^{\beta}A_{\beta}^{-}(x_{2})A_{\alpha}^{+}(x_{1})

I am afraid I can't see how the normal ordering resolves to this sequence. Anyone help me revise my Einstein notation and normal-ordering?
 
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Nobody?

If it helps, the difficulty I have is that in the first resultant expression, the indices on the second gamma and the first A don't match. As far as I knew, this didn't mean anything as summation is over repeated indices.
 
Sojourner01 said:
Nobody?

If it helps, the difficulty I have is that in the first resultant expression, the indices on the second gamma and the first A don't match. As far as I knew, this didn't mean anything as summation is over repeated indices.

I don't have Mandl & Shaw, (though I have quite a few other QFT textbooks). If nobody
else gives you a useful answer within a reasonable time, you could try typing in more
of the context here and I'll try to say something helpful...
 
I'll see what I can do...

Given the definition of the S matrix:

S=\sum_{x=0}^{\infty}\frac{(-i)^{n}}{n!}\int...\int d^{4}x_{1}...d^{4}x_{n}T\{H_{I}(x_{1})...H_{I}(x_{n})\}

and the interaction Hamiltonian being (for QED):

H_{I}(x)=-eN\{\overline{\psi}(x)\gamma_{i}A^{i}(x)\psi(x)\}

The time-ordered product of two particles resolves, using Wick's Theorem, to six integrals of normal products, some of which aren't very interesting. The second one is used as an example:

S_{B}^{(2)}=-\frac{e^{2}}{2!}\int d^{4}x_{1}d^{4}x_{2}\left\{ N\left[(\overline{\psi}\gamma_{i}A^{i}\underbrace{\psi)_{x_{1}}(\overline{\psi}}\gamma_{i}A^{i}\psi)_{x_{2}}\right]+N\left[(\underbrace{\overline{\psi}\gamma_{i}A^{i}\psi)_{x_{1}}(\overline{\psi}\gamma_{i}A^{i}\psi})_{x_{2}}\right]\right\}

where the underbraces represent contractions of \psi and \overline{\psi}}.

The author states that the two normal products are equivalent and simply takes the first multiplied by two.

Using the identity:

\underbrace{\psi_{\alpha}(x_{1})\overline{\psi_{\beta}}(x_{2}})}=iS_{F\alpha \beta}(x_{1}-x_{2})

where S is theFeynman propagator; this (apparently) resolves to the two counterpart expressions given in the original post. I don't see it, basically. There seems to have been a shuffling around of gamma matrices with no obvious justification - and you usually can't just change the order of matrix expressions.
 
Last edited:
The two terms are the same, except for what is being contracted with what. In the first term, \psi(x_1) is contracted with \overline\psi(x_2). In the second term, \psi(x_2) is contracted with \overline\psi(x_1). But, x_1 and x_2 are both dummy integration variables, so swapping them doesn't change the result. Thus the two terms are equal after performing the integrations over x_1 and x_2.
 
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