Eigenvalues of commuting observables (angular momentum)

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the question of whether the state \( z|lm\rangle \) is an eigenstate of the operator \( L^{2} \) in the context of angular momentum in quantum mechanics. The participants explore the implications of commuting observables and the properties of eigenstates associated with them.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking, Exploratory

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the relationship between the operators \( L_{z} \) and \( L^{2} \), noting that they are commuting observables and thus share eigenstates. There is an exploration of the implications of degeneracy in eigenstates and whether this affects the eigenstate status of \( z|lm\rangle \) with respect to \( L^{2} \).

Discussion Status

The conversation includes various perspectives on the eigenstate status of \( z|lm\rangle \). Some participants suggest that while \( z|lm\rangle \) is an eigenstate of \( L_{z} \), it may not necessarily be an eigenstate of \( L^{2} \). There is ongoing consideration of the implications of the commutation relations and the completeness of the set of commuting observables.

Contextual Notes

Participants are grappling with the definitions and properties of eigenstates in the context of quantum mechanics, particularly regarding the implications of degeneracy and the nature of the operators involved. There is also mention of the challenges in calculating specific commutators and the assumptions that may need to be revisited.

gitano
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Homework Statement


Is [itex]z|lm\rangle[/itex] an eigenstate of [itex]L^{2}[/itex]? If so, find the eigenvalue.

Homework Equations


[tex]L_{z}|lm\rangle = \hbar m|lm\rangle[/tex]
[tex]L^{2}|lm\rangle = \hbar^{2} l(l+1)|lm\rangle[/tex]

The Attempt at a Solution


So since [itex]L_{z}[/itex] and [itex]L^{2}[/itex] are commuting observables, they have are simultaneously diagonalizable and hence share the same eigenkets. Now, since [itex]z[/itex] and [itex]L_{z}[/itex] commute [itex]z|lm\rangle[/itex] is an eigenstate of [itex]L_{z}[/itex] and hence of [itex]L^{2}[/itex]. Now I am just having some issues calculating the eigenvalue.

I have derived that [tex][x_{i},L_{j}] = i\hbar \epsilon_{ijk}x_{k}[/tex] and that
[tex][x_{i},L^{2}_{j}] = i\hbar\epsilon_{ijk}(x_{k}L_{j}+L_{j}x_{k})[/tex].

Now [tex]L^{2}z|lm\rangle = ([L^2,z]+zL^{2})|lm\rangle[/tex].
So it remains to calculate [tex][L^2,z] = [L^{2}_{x}+L^{2}_{y},z][/tex]
I have proceeded using the relations I derived above, but I can't seem to get this commutator to give me some constant times [itex]z[/itex], which is what I need to extract an eigenvalue from the whole thing.
 
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By the way, how do you get the equations to be inline with the text?
 
Sorry guys I changed the problem to correctly read: Is z|lm> an eigenstate of L^2, not of L_z.
 
I was just thinking, since [itex]z|lm\rangle[/itex] is an eigenstate of [itex]L_{z}[/itex] and has the same eigenvalue as [itex]|lm\rangle[/itex], does this degeneracy mean that [itex]z|lm\rangle[/itex] is also an eigenstate of [itex]L^{2}[/itex] with the same eigenvalue as [itex]|lm\rangle[/itex], namely [itex]\hbar^{2}l(l+1)[/itex]?

In general, if an observable has degenerate eigenstates and commutes with another observable, does this mean that these degenerate eigenstates have eigenvalues with respect to the commuting operator which are equal as well (i.e. are the degenerate eigenstates of the original observable also degenerate eigenstates of the commuting observable)?
 
After more consideration, I'm beginning to think that [itex]z|lm\rangle[/itex] is not an eigenstate of [itex]L^{2}[/itex]. Even though [itex][L_{z},L^{2}] = 0[/itex] and share [itex]|lm\rangle[/itex] as eigenstates, since they are not a complete set of commuting observables, all the eigenstates of one are not necessarily eigenstates of the other. Therefore, I don't think it is necessary that [itex]z|lm\rangle[/itex], being a degenerate eigenstate of [itex]L_{z}[/itex] is an eigenstate of [itex]L^{2}[/itex]. This seems to be corroborated by the fact that when you work out the commutator [itex][z,L^{2}][/itex], you can't get back [itex]z[/itex] times some constant.

Also, there might be some argument one can use based on the rotational properties, i.e. that the operator [itex]z[/itex] changes the value of [itex]l[/itex] and thus cannot be an eigenstate of [itex]L^{2}[/itex], but I don't know if this is true or not.

Am I correct in this reasoning?
 

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