bhobba
Mentor
- 10,965
- 3,836
Vividly said:My question is, what was their “stand” in regards to this epistimological paradox?
To answer the question head-on, the epistemological difference between Einstein and Bohr is Einstein was a realist. He believed in an objective world out there independent of anyone’s beliefs, linguistic practices, conceptual schemes, and so on. Within that view of the world, there are many different nuanced positions. Einstein was also an epistemological opportunist; he simply took the one that served his purpose the best. The point to take away, though, is he was a realist. Bohr was an instrumentalist believing science reveals nothing except what is observable. Science is just a tool allowing the prediction of observations but does not reveal any hidden aspects of nature that may explain those laws.
Feynman, too was an opportunist - believing it to be just one 'trick' that scientists can try to unlock natures secrets. He was quite anti-philosophy - which is rather strange because it is philosophy itself.
In modern times I think most (but not all - see the writings of Penrose, for example) scientists are really neither; they are like Stephen Hawking believing in some form of Model-dependent realism:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Model-dependent_realism
I, too, am in that camp, although I was once in Prenose's camp. But like Feynman, as far as nuances go, I am an opportunist.
Thanks
Bill