Electric Potential: Why Is It Equal in Both Spheres?

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Jalo
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Homework Statement


Imagine two conductor spheres with radius r1 and r2, so that r1 > r2.
The two spheres are connected by a infinitely long wire, and the total charge of the system is Q.
What's the ratio of the potential of the first sphere by the potential of the second sphere?



Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



I solved the problem. However to accomplish that I had to say that the electric potential is equal in both spheres, and that's what I'm having trouble understanding.
Why is the electric potential equal in both spheres?

Thanks in advance!
 
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Simon Bridge said:
The two spheres are connected by a conductor.

Could you be more specific?
I know that they are connected by a conductor, but why does that result in them having the same charge?
 
Any two conductors which are electrically connected must have the same voltage. (NOT charge.)
You know this... if only from your work on electric circuits.

If there is a potential difference between the spheres then what would you expect to have in the wire joining them?