When one says that <[itex]\varphi[/itex]|[itex]\psi[/itex]> is the probability that [itex]\psi[/itex] collapses to [itex]\varphi[/itex], does this "collapse" necessarily involve a measurement (so that one would have to find the implicit Hamiltonian)? Or does this just exist as part of the evolution of the wave function, perhaps the vacuum energy playing a role in the Schrödinger equation?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Elementary questions about inner product interpretation

Loading...

Similar Threads for Elementary questions inner |
---|

I Two particles Dirac type equation question |

I Dirac equation, one question |

I Braket notation question |

B Quick question about Bloch's sphere |

I How elementary particles form matter |

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**