# elements in base does not depend on the basis

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    Base Basis Elements
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The discussion centers on proving that if a set of vectors {e_1,...,e_n} forms a basis for a vector space L, then no set of vectors {e'_1,...,e'_m} with m > n can also serve as a basis for L. The proof relies on the existence of a zero vector, expressed as 0 = ∑(i=1 to m) x_ie'_i, where not all coefficients x_i are zero. Participants express confusion about the reasoning behind the zero vector's existence and the implications of dimensions n and g, where g > n, in relation to vector sets.

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CubicFlunky77
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Essentially, I have to show that where {[itex]e_1,...,e_n[/itex]} forms the basis of [itex]L[/itex], no family of vectors {[itex]e'_1 ,..., e'_m[/itex]} with [itex]m[/itex]>[itex]n[/itex] can serve as the basis of [itex]L[/itex]. The book shows this by saying there exists a [itex]0[/itex] vector such that [itex]0 = \sum_{i=1}^{m}x_ie'_i[/itex], where not all [itex]x_i[/itex] vanish. I wanted to show it by distinguishing the sets to which [itex]e[/itex] and [itex]e'[/itex] belong and showing that if one belongs to a set in n-dimension and the other belongs to a different set in g-dimension where g>n, the n-dimension cannot encompass the g-dimension. I'm not sure if this is doable or too longwinded. Also, I do not understand their reasoning or where the [itex]0[/itex] vector comes from. Help?
 
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If n vectors form a basis of L, then the dimension of L is n, and not g. Where does that g come from, and what is it supposed to be?
It is possible to assume that there is a different basis with m>n vectors, and show that the first n vectors cannot form a basis then (proof by contradiction).

What do you mean with "where the 0 vector comes from"? The 0 vector is part of L.
 
CubicFlunky77 said:
Essentially, I have to show that where {[itex]e_1,...,e_n[/itex]} forms the basis of [itex]L[/itex], no family of vectors {[itex]e'_1 ,..., e'_m[/itex]} with [itex]m[/itex]>[itex]n[/itex] can serve as the basis of [itex]L[/itex]. The book shows this by saying there exists a [itex]0[/itex] vector such that [itex]0 = \sum_{i=1}^{m}x_ie'_i[/itex], where not all [itex]x_i[/itex] vanish.


You should should state exactly what book's proof says.

I wanted to show it by distinguishing the sets to which [itex]e[/itex] and [itex]e'[/itex] belong and showing that if one belongs to a set in n-dimension and the other belongs to a different set in g-dimension where g>n, the n-dimension cannot encompass the g-dimension. I'm not sure if this is doable or too longwinded.

That's doesn't describe a specific method, so I'm not sure either.


Also, I do not understand their reasoning or where the [itex]0[/itex] vector comes from. Help?


You'll have to reveal the book's proof if you want someone to evaluated it.
 

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