Elliptic function - different definitions

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The discussion centers on the differences between the definitions of the complete elliptic integral of the first kind in Wolfram Mathematica (EllipticK[m]) and the traditional definition (K(m)) found in Abramowitz-Stegun. The primary concern is that Mathematica's domain for m extends to -Infinity < m < 1, while Abramowitz-Stegun restricts it to |m| < 1. The user seeks clarification on how EllipticK[m] relates to K when m < -1, particularly for numerical coding in GSL, which only accepts |m| < 1. The issue arises because EllipticK can handle larger negative values, but GSL's K function cannot, leading to domain errors. Understanding the relationship between these definitions is crucial for successfully implementing elliptic functions in numerical calculations.
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Elliptic function -- different definitions

Hi,

I have recently discovered, that the definition of the complete elliptic integral of the first kind in Wolfram Mathematica (EllipticK[m]) is different from the usual (K(m)), given in Abramowitz-Stegun.

Their domains are not the same. In Abramowitz-Stegun, K is defined for |m| < 1, however in Mathematica, the domain is -Infinity < m<1.

My question is, the following. How EllipticK[m] is related to K, when m < -1? Is it related at all?
 
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Thanks for the fast reply.

Yes, I have checked it, although I did not really understand it. For m > 1, EllipticK is complex, while for m < -1 it is real, and I cannot see, how they are related.

To be specific, my problem is that I am writing a numerical code in GSL, that uses elliptic functions. The formulas to be calculated numerically were derivedwith the help of Mathematica, so they contain EllipticK. The problem is, that (following Abramowitz) the GSL version of K(m) is defined only for |m| < 1, and when I'm passing a large negative argument to it (e.g. -4, that is a valid value for EllipticK), it dies with an out of domain error. So I need to express EllipticK[m] in terms of K.
 
There are probably loads of proofs of this online, but I do not want to cheat. Here is my attempt: Convexity says that $$f(\lambda a + (1-\lambda)b) \leq \lambda f(a) + (1-\lambda) f(b)$$ $$f(b + \lambda(a-b)) \leq f(b) + \lambda (f(a) - f(b))$$ We know from the intermediate value theorem that there exists a ##c \in (b,a)## such that $$\frac{f(a) - f(b)}{a-b} = f'(c).$$ Hence $$f(b + \lambda(a-b)) \leq f(b) + \lambda (a - b) f'(c))$$ $$\frac{f(b + \lambda(a-b)) - f(b)}{\lambda(a-b)}...

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