Empty Family of Sets: Does it Make Sense?

  • Thread starter Thread starter littleHilbert
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Empty Sets
Click For Summary
The discussion centers on the concept of unions and intersections over an empty set within the context of topological spaces. It highlights that the union of an empty family of sets results in the empty set being included in the topology, while the intersection of an empty family leads to the entire set X being included. The notion of vacuous truth is emphasized, explaining that statements involving an empty index set can be logically true or false depending on the context. Participants express confusion over certain definitions and advocate for clearer formulations of topological axioms. The conversation underscores the importance of precise definitions in mathematical discussions.
littleHilbert
Messages
55
Reaction score
0
Hi! I'd like to ask the following question.

Does it make sense to take unions and intersections over an empty set?

For instance I came across a definition of a topological space which uses just two axioms:

A topology on a set X is a subset T of the power set of X, which satisfies:
1. The union of any familiy of sets in T belongs to T. Applying this to the empty family, we obtain in particular \emptyset\in{}T
2. The intersection of any finite family of sets in T belongs to T. Applying this to the empty family, we obtain in particular X\in{}T

The empty family is just a family of sets with an empty index set, isn't it? Or did I misunderstand the notion of the empty family.
 
Mathematics news on Phys.org
The empty set is always tricky, usually statements are a matter of definition.
If you define
\bigcup_{i \in I} X_i
as
\{ x \in X \mid \exists i \in I: x \in X_i \}
and
\bigcap_{i \in I} X_i
as
\{ x \in X \mid \forall i \in I: x \in X_i \}
then the first statement is "vacuously false" (i.e. for any x, there does not exist such i in I because I is empty) and the second is vacuously true (P is always true if the index set I in "for all i in I, P holds" is empty).
 
and the second is vacuously true (P is always true if the index set I in "for all i in I, P holds" is empty).

Do you mean that "for all" incorporates "for no"?
 
No, I am talking about vacuous truth: in mathematics, any statement of the form
\forall x \in \emptyset, P(x)
is logically true. An example in "ordinary" language is: "all white crows have three legs," which is true by the fact that there are no white crows.

Similarly here, for any x in X, the statement \forall i \in I, x \in X_i is (vacuously) true, because there are no i in I.
 
I think that the definition littleHilbert has posted is awkward, and you're right to be confused. It doesn't read well to me, which is a quality a definition shouldn't have. The definition I've seen and like is:

T is a topology for X if it is a collection of subsets of X that satisfies:
1) the empty set and X are in T
2) T is closed under arbitrary unions
3) T is closed under finite intersections
 
Here is a little puzzle from the book 100 Geometric Games by Pierre Berloquin. The side of a small square is one meter long and the side of a larger square one and a half meters long. One vertex of the large square is at the center of the small square. The side of the large square cuts two sides of the small square into one- third parts and two-thirds parts. What is the area where the squares overlap?

Similar threads

  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 15 ·
Replies
15
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
3K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
6K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
3K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
3K
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
3K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
Replies
6
Views
2K