Energy of particle when under a central force

In summary, the potential energy of the particle is calculated as follows: the gravitational force acting between Earth and the satellite is taken into account, and the term is multiplied by the velocity v and the gravitational mass m. The kinetic energy is then calculated as the product of the velocity and the gravitational mass.
  • #1
Saptarshi Sarkar
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Homework Statement
A particle moves in a circular orbit about the origin under action of a central force ##\vec F = -k\hat r/r^3##. If the potential energy is zero at infinity, what is the total energy of the particle?
Relevant Equations
##E_{total} = E_{kinetic} + E_{potential}##
I calculated the potential energy of the particle as follows :

IMG_20200109_222624.jpg


But I am not sure how to calculate the kinetic energy. I know that if it was a satellite orbiting a Earth, I could use ##\frac {GMm} {r^2} = \frac {mv^2} {r}## to calculate the velocity v and they I could calculate kinetic energy as ##E_{kinetic} = \frac {mv^2} 2##.
But how do I calculate the velocity for the given force?
 
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  • #2
Saptarshi Sarkar said:
I know that if it was a satellite orbiting a Earth, I could use ##\frac {GMm} {r^2} = \frac {mv^2} {r}## to calculate the velocity v and they I could calculate kinetic energy as ##E_{kinetic} = \frac {mv^2} 2##.
But how do I calculate the velocity for the given force?

Where did the left-hand side come from in the case of the gravitational force?
 
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  • #3
Orodruin said:
Where did the left-hand side come from in the case of the gravitational force?

The term is the gravitational force acting between Earth and the satellite.

I put ##\frac k {r^3} = \frac {mv^2} {r}## and found ##E_{kinetic} = \frac k {2r^2}##. Is this correct? If this is correct, that would mean the total energy of the particle is 0. Is this possible?
 
  • #4
Saptarshi Sarkar said:
If this is correct, that would mean the total energy of the particle is 0. Is this possible?
Sure. Why not?
 
  • #5
vela said:
Sure. Why not?

Won't that mean that the particle is not bound anymore?
 
  • #6
It's right on the edge. Give it a little more energy, and it will go off to infinity. Take a little away, and it'll spiral in.
 
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  • #7
Hmm. A circular orbit should have a negative total mechanical energy, as should any elliptical orbit. The on-the-edge orbit is that of a parabola where the total mechanical energy is zero. Hyperbolic orbits have positive values for total mechanical energy.

I think there must be a sign issue with your PE. If you look at some common expressions for the specific mechanical energy for an orbit:

##\xi = \frac{v^2}{2} - \frac{\mu}{r}##
##\xi = - \frac{\mu}{2a}##
##\xi = \mu \frac{\left(e^2 - 1 \right)}{2p}##

where ##a## is the semi major axis, ##e## is the eccentricity, and ##p## is the semi latus rectum.

You should be able to tell from these expressions that bound orbits will have negative mechanical energy.
 
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  • #8
gneill said:
Hmm. A circular orbit should have a negative total mechanical energy, as should any elliptical orbit. The on-the-edge orbit is that of a parabola where the total mechanical energy is zero. Hyperbolic orbits have positive values for total mechanical energy.
For an inverse-square force. The problem the OP is dealing with is an inverse-cube force.
 
  • #9
vela said:
For an inverse-square force. The problem the OP is dealing with is an inverse-cube force.
I thought the cube was an error, since in the original problem statement there was a vector r in the numerator. The "extra" r in the denominator accounts for forming a unit vector: ##\frac{\vec{r}}{|r|}##
 
  • #10
The original problem statement has a unit vector in the numerator.
 
  • #11
vela said:
The original problem statement has a unit vector in the numerator.
Fair enough. I stand corrected.
 
  • #12
Saptarshi Sarkar said:
But how do I calculate the velocity for the given force?
For future reference, with such problems you can get the answer directly by considering the virial theorem.
 
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