Equality of Equivalence Classes

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wolfmanzak
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Homework Statement


Suppose is an equivalence relation on a set S. If [tex]a \sim b[/tex] for some [tex]a,b \in S[/tex],then [tex]E_{a}=E_{b}[/tex]

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution



Assume [tex]a \sim b[/tex] for some [tex]a,b \in S[/tex]. Pick [tex]x \in (a,b)[/tex]. For [tex]a \in S[/tex] the equivalence class of a can be written as [tex]\{x \in S | a \sim x\}[/tex]. For [tex]b \in S[/tex] the equivalence class of b is the set [tex]\{x \in S | b \sim x\}[/tex].

Here is where I am a little stuck, I'm not sure if picking x in (a,b) is even possible or the right way to start this problem. I just don't know how to start the problem, if I know how to start it, I am pretty sure I can use the properties of Equivalence classes/relations and their definitions to show that the equivalence classes are equal but I need a good starting point.

Any and all help is much appreciated. Thanks in advance.
 
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I know it's much simpler than I'm making it. I know that [tex]a \sim b[/tex] from the problem statement, what method or steps do I take to go from there to show that [tex]E_{a}=E_{b}[/tex]?
 
So if I pick [tex]z \in E_{a}[/tex] this would mean that because a~z and that b~a(by symmetry of equivalence classes)we would have b~a and a~z and thus b~z(transitivity) and thus z is in the equivalence class of b. Would this be enough to show that the two equivalence classes of a and b respectively were equal? Or would I need to "go the other way" as well?
 
I would recommend a proof by contraction.

Suppose a~ b but [itex]E_a\ne E_b[/itex]. Then either:
1) There exist x in [itex]E_a[/itex] that is not in [itex]E_b[/itex] or
2) There exist x in [itex]E_b[/itex] that is not in [[itex]E_a[/itex].

In other words
1) There exist x that is equivalent to a but not to b or
2) There exist x that is equivalent to b but not to a.

The transitive law shows both of those are impossible.