- #1
huba
- 32
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Using "[URL theorem[/URL], and the fact that [tex]\varphi(p) = p - 1[/tex] when p is prime, and the fact that 2 is coprime to all odd numbers, is it right to say that
[tex]2^{m-1} \equiv 1 \ (mod \ m)[/tex] iff m is prime > 2?
[tex]2^{m-1} \equiv 1 \ (mod \ m)[/tex] iff m is prime > 2?
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