MHB Evaluate the Improper Integral (III)

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The discussion focuses on evaluating the improper integral $$\int ^{\infty}_1 \frac{2x}{(x^2 + 1)^3} \, dx$$ and clarifying concepts of convergence. The substitution $$u = x^2 + 1$$ simplifies the integral, leading to the conclusion that the integral converges because it results in a finite limit. Participants clarify that the integral's convergence is determined by whether the final result is finite, not by its value relative to 1. Ultimately, the integral converges, and understanding that any finite result indicates convergence resolves the initial confusion. The thread concludes with participants expressing gratitude for the clarification.
shamieh
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Need someone to check my work, as well as answer a few questions I'm confused about as well.

$$\int ^{\infty}_1 \frac{2x}{(x^2 + 1)^3} \, dx$$

so:

$$lim_{a\to\infty} \int^a_1 \frac{2x}{(x^2 + 1)^3} \, dx$$

Letting $$u = x^2 + 1$$
and $$du = 2x \, dx$$

after updating the limits

I come up with

$$\int ^{a^2 + 1}_2 u^{-3} \, du$$

I guess my question is: I know that the upper limit is really just infinity$$^2$$ + 1 right? So do I really need to worry about writing that substitution in the upper limit or can I just leave it as a

Also I know that $$\frac{number}{\infty} = 0$$ but does $$\frac{\infty}{number} = \infty ?$$ (Again, sorry if these sound like ignorant questions, I'm just a bit confused.)

I came up with: $$\frac{1}{-2u^2} |^a_2 = [0] + [\frac{1}{8}] $$

$$\therefore$$ converges because $$\frac{1}{8} > 1$$
 
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Re: Evaluate the Improper Integrl (III)

I would expect the integral to converges because the denominator goes faster than the numerator by huge amount. Natural we want to compare the integral to $$\int_{t>0}^\infty \frac{1}{x^a} dx$$

The integral converges if $a>1$.
 
Re: Evaluate the Improper Integrl (III)

But in the first integral isn't it = 0 so it diverges because a < 1 ?

Therefore if one diverges don't they both?
 
Re: Evaluate the Improper Integrl (III)

shamieh said:
$$\therefore$$ converges because $$\frac{1}{8} > 1$$

We only need the final result to be finite for the integral to converge.
 
Re: Evaluate the Improper Integrl (III)

Oh I see. I was analyzing it wrong. So it in fact does converge then.
 
Re: Evaluate the Improper Integrl (III)

ZaidAlyafey said:
We only need the final result to be finite for the integral to converge.

So could I say that: $$\frac{1}{-2u^2} | ^{a^2 + 1}_2 = 0 + \frac{1}{8} $$

since a < 1 we know that it converges.

or

Since we have some finite limit that does exist, we can say that it definitely converges considering that 1/8 = .025 which is < 1

or

Do I not need to worry about the actual value that the limit is itself, $$\therefore$$ if it exists we know that it converges?

Sorry, just trying to clarify
 
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Re: Evaluate the Improper Integrl (III)

shamieh said:
So could I say that: $$\frac{1}{-2u^2} | ^{a^2 + 1}_2 = 0 + \frac{1}{8} $$

since a < 1 we know that it converges.

or

Since we have some finite limit that does exist, we can say that it definitely converges considering that 1/8 = .025 which is < 1

or

Do I not need to worry about the actual value that the limit is itself, $$\therefore$$ if it exists we know that it converges?

Sorry, just trying to clarify

If the integral is a finite number, as it is in this case, then the integral is convergent. The limit being less than 1 is irrelevant, in fact, the integral can equal ANY finite number (greater than 1 as well) and still converge.
 
Re: Evaluate the Improper Integrl (III)

Prove It said:
If the integral is a finite number, as it is in this case, then the integral is convergent. The limit being less than 1 is irrelevant, in fact, the integral can equal ANY finite number (greater than 1 as well) and still converge.

Awesome, thanks so much! Was so confused on this. Now I get it!
 

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