Evaluating $\displaystyle \int f(z)dz$ with $a>0$

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers around evaluating the integral $$ \int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-x^{2}} \ \frac{a \cos (2ax) + x \sin(2ax)}{x^{2}+a^{2}} \ dx $$ for $a>0$, using the function $f(z) = \frac{e^{-z^{2}}}{z}$ and potentially employing contour integration techniques.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Technical explanation, Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant presents the integral to be evaluated and suggests using contour integration with the function $f(z) = \frac{e^{-z^{2}}}{z}$.
  • Another participant reiterates the same integral and function, indicating a potential emphasis on the method of solution.
  • A third participant critiques the approach, suggesting that hints should be provided by the original poster (OP) rather than complete solutions by others, referencing guidelines for posting answers.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

There is no consensus on the method of solution, as participants express differing views on how to approach the problem and the appropriateness of providing complete solutions versus hints.

Contextual Notes

The discussion reflects varying interpretations of the guidelines for problem-solving contributions, which may affect the flow of the conversation and the types of responses expected.

polygamma
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By integrating $ \displaystyle f(z) = \frac{e^{-z^{2}}}{z}$ around the appropriate contour, or otherwise, show that for $a>0$,

$$ \int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-x^{2}} \ \frac{a \cos (2ax) + x \sin(2ax)}{x^{2}+a^{2}} \ dx = \frac{\pi}{2}e^{-a^{2}}.$$
 
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Random Variable said:
By integrating $ \displaystyle f(z) = \frac{e^{-z^{2}}}{z}$ around the appropriate contour, or otherwise, show that for $a>0$,

$$ \int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-x^{2}} \ \frac{a \cos (2ax) + x \sin(2ax)}{x^{2}+a^{2}} \ dx = \frac{\pi}{2}e^{-a^{2}}.$$
Let u = 2 a x. The rest is trivial and is left for the interested student.

-Dan
 
topsquark said:
Let u = 2 a x. The rest is trivial and is left for the interested student.

-Dan

Dan, Dan, Dan...we ask that hints be left up to the OP to give, and that all others post complete solutions. (Mmm)

http://mathhelpboards.com/challenge-questions-puzzles-28/guidelines-posting-answering-challenging-problem-puzzle-3875.html
 
By integrating $\frac{e^{-z^{2}}}{z}$ around a rectangle with vertices at $\pm R \pm ia$ and then letting $R \to \infty$, we get $$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{e^{-(x-ia)^{2}}}{x-ia} \, dx - \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{e^{-(x+ia)^{2}}}{x+ia} \, dx = 2 \pi i \, \text{Res} \left[ \frac{e^{-z^{2}}}{z}, 0\right] = 2 \pi i $$

Combining the first two integrals,

$$ e^{a^{2}}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{-x^{2}} \, \frac{ e^{2iax}(x+ia) - e^{-2iax}(x-ia)}{x^{2}+a^{2}} \, dx = e^{a^{2}}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{-x^{2}} \frac{2ix \sin(2ax) +2ia \cos(2ax)}{x^{2}+a^{2}} \, dx = 2 \pi i $$

So

$$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{-x^{2}} \frac{x \sin(2ax) +a \cos(2ax)}{x^{2}+a^{2}} \, dx = \pi e^{-a^{2}} $$

The result then follows since the integrand is even.
 

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