Evaluating Double Integral $II_{5d}$

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Discussion Overview

The discussion focuses on evaluating the double integral \( II_{5d} \) defined as \( \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} \frac{1}{(x^2+1)(y^2+1)} \, dy \, dx \). Participants explore the computation of this integral, including the evaluation of a related single integral \( I_1 \) and its implications for the double integral.

Discussion Character

  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant computes the single integral \( I_1 = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{1}{u^2+1} \, du \) and finds it to be \( \pi \).
  • Another participant suggests that the double integral can be expressed as \( I = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{1}{x^2+1} \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{1}{y^2+1} \, dy \, dx \).
  • Subsequently, it is proposed that the value of the double integral \( I \) is \( \pi \cdot \pi = \pi^2 \).
  • One participant confirms the calculation of \( \pi^2 \) as correct.
  • A later reply expresses enthusiasm about the progress made in the discussion.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants appear to agree on the calculation leading to \( \pi^2 \) as the value of the double integral, although the discussion does not explore any alternative methods or viewpoints.

Contextual Notes

The discussion does not address potential limitations or assumptions in the evaluation process, nor does it explore the convergence of the integrals in detail.

karush
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$\textsf{d. Evaluate :}\\$
\begin{align*}\displaystyle
II_{5d}&=\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}
\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}
\frac{1}{(x^2+1)(y^2+1)}
\, dy dx
\end{align*}
 
Last edited:
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Re: double Integral

First, I would begin by computing:

$$I_1=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{1}{u^2+1}\,du=\lim_{t\to\infty}\left(\int_{-t}^{t}\frac{1}{u^2+1}\,du\right)=\lim_{t\to\infty}\left(\left[\arctan(t)-\arctan(-t)\right]_{-t}^{t}\right)=2\lim_{t\to\infty}\left(\arctan(t)\right)=2\cdot\frac{\pi}{2}=\pi$$

And now we can write:

$$I=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{1}{\left(x^2+1\right)\left(y^2+1\right)}\,dy\,dx=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{1}{x^2+1}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{1}{y^2+1}\,dy\,dx$$

Can you now express $I$ as a function of $I_1$?
 
Re: double Integral

so would this simply be:

$$\pi \cdot \pi = \pi^2$$
 
Re: double Integral

karush said:
so would this simply be:

$$\pi \cdot \pi = \pi^2$$

Yes, that's correct. :)
 
Re: double Integral

ahhh progress😎
 

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