Every closed ball in X is complete, then X is complete

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving that if every closed ball in a metric space X is a complete subspace, then X itself is complete. Participants are examining the properties of Cauchy sequences within this context.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the proof structure involving Cauchy sequences and their convergence within closed balls. There are attempts to clarify the implications of the completeness of closed balls on the overall completeness of the metric space.

Discussion Status

Some participants express confidence in the proof presented, while others raise concerns about specific choices in notation, such as the use of ε=1. There is a general acknowledgment of the proof's validity, but also a suggestion to avoid potentially misleading assumptions regarding the size of the metric space.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the definition of a closed ball may vary based on the metric space's characteristics, indicating a need for careful consideration of ε values in proofs.

mahler1
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Homework Statement .
Prove that if every closed ball in a metric space X is a complete subspace, then X is complete.


The attempt at a solution.

Let ##\{x_n\}## be a cauchy sequence in X. Then, for ##ε=1##, ##\exists## ##n_0 \in \mathbb N##: ##\forall## ##m≥n_0##,##n≥n_0## ##d(x_m,x_n)<1##. Consider the closed ball centered at ##x_{n_0}## of radius 1. Then, the subsequence ##\{x'_n\}## such that ##x'_n=x_{n_0 + n-1}## is a subsequence of ##\{x_n\}## included in ##K(x_{n_0},1)## . By hypothesis, the ball is a complete subspace and the subsequence ##\{x'_n\}## is cauchy. But then ##\{x'_n\}## converges to some point ##x \in K(x_{n_0},1)## This implies ##\{x'_n\}## converges to the same point x in the metric space X. So the original sequence ##\{x_n\}## has a convergent subsequence that converges to the point x, this means that ##\{x_n\}## converges to x. I've proved that an arbitrary cauchy sequence in X is convergent, this implies every cauchy sequence in X is convergent, then X is a complete metric space.


Is my proof correct?
 
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mahler1 said:
Homework Statement .
Prove that if every closed ball in a metric space X is a complete subspace, then X is complete.


The attempt at a solution.

Let ##\{x_n\}## be a cauchy sequence in X. Then, for ##ε=1##, ##\exists## ##n_0 \in \mathbb N##: ##\forall## ##m≥n_0##,##n≥n_0## ##d(x_m,x_n)<1##. Consider the closed ball centered at ##x_{n_0}## of radius 1. Then, the subsequence ##\{x'_n\}## such that ##x'_n=x_{n_0 + n-1}## is a subsequence of ##\{x_n\}## included in ##K(x_{n_0},1)## . By hypothesis, the ball is a complete subspace and the subsequence ##\{x'_n\}## is cauchy. But then ##\{x'_n\}## converges to some point ##x \in K(x_{n_0},1)## This implies ##\{x'_n\}## converges to the same point x in the metric space X. So the original sequence ##\{x_n\}## has a convergent subsequence that converges to the point x, this means that ##\{x_n\}## converges to x. I've proved that an arbitrary cauchy sequence in X is convergent, this implies every cauchy sequence in X is convergent, then X is a complete metric space.


Is my proof correct?

Why are you having doubts? Eventually the tail of every cauchy sequence is contained in a closed ball. The closed ball is complete. So the sequence is convergent.
 
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Dick said:
Why are you having doubts? Eventually the tail of every cauchy sequence is contained in a closed ball. The closed ball is complete. So the sequence is convergent.

Thank you, I'm new to proofs and mathematics in general so I usually have strong doubts on whether I am doing the exercises right or not. I suppose it's a newbie's insecurity.
 
mahler1 said:
Thank you, I'm new to proofs and mathematics in general so I usually have strong doubts on whether I am doing the exercises right or not. I suppose it's a newbie's insecurity.

Well, I thought that was a pretty fine and clear proof. I think you should start feeling less insecure.
 
The only thing is that you don't want to say ε=1.

Because your metric space may be "smaller" than the unit closed ball.

You could just say for some ε. But the proof seems fine
 
Jufro said:
The only thing is that you don't want to say ε=1.

Because your metric space may be "smaller" than the unit closed ball.

You could just say for some ε. But the proof seems fine

A 'ball' in a metric space is just the set of all points x in the space such that |d(x,x0)|<=R. It doesn't have to be spherical. The proof really doesn't need any qualification.
 

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