Expansion of a function f(x) with poles

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the expansion of a function f(x) with simple poles into the form f(x) = ∑_{r} a_{r} (x-r)^{-1}, where 'r' represents the poles in the complex plane. The Mittag-Leffler theorem confirms that such an expansion is indeed possible. Additionally, the conversation explores the relationship between the Euler-Maclaurin resummation and the integral ∫_{0}^{∞} f(x) dx, suggesting that subtracting the pole expansion from f(x) simplifies the problem. Techniques involving substitution and differentiation under the integral sign are recommended for further exploration.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of complex analysis, specifically simple poles
  • Familiarity with the Mittag-Leffler theorem
  • Knowledge of the Euler-Maclaurin formula
  • Basic calculus, particularly integration techniques
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the Mittag-Leffler theorem in detail
  • Learn about the Euler-Maclaurin summation formula
  • Explore techniques for differentiating under the integral sign
  • Investigate the properties of Fourier series and their applications
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, physicists, and students studying complex analysis or integral transforms, particularly those interested in function expansions and series summation techniques.

zetafunction
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If a function f(x) have SIMPLE POLES , could in principle this f(x) be expanded into

[tex]f(x)= \sum_{r}a_{r} (x-r)^{-1}[/tex]

where 'r' are the poles on the complex plane of the function

Another question, would it be possible to relate using the Euler-Mac Laurin resummation, a series of the form [tex]\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}(-1)^{n}f(n)[/tex] to the integral

[tex]\int_{0}^{\infty}f(x)dx[/tex]
 
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zetafunction said:
If a function f(x) have SIMPLE POLES , could in principle this f(x) be expanded into

[tex]f(x)= \sum_{r}a_{r} (x-r)^{-1}[/tex]

where 'r' are the poles on the complex plane of the function

No. But (assuming a finite sum, or a convergent sum) if you subtract this from f(x), you get something with no poles, perhaps reducing to a simpler problem.
 
Last edited:
The answer to the first question is YES: see the Mittag-Leffler theorem.

I would substitute [tex]x=\sin\left(\cos(n\pi) x\right)[/tex] in the integral. Differentiate several times under the integral and add the terms. Substitute [tex]n=1[/tex] in the final step. That's how I would go about and see if something happens. See if it is related to the Fourier series of some other function.
 

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