Expectation value of momentum operator

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SUMMARY

The expectation value of the momentum operator for a real-valued wavefunction can be calculated using the integral

=\int \psi^*(x) \frac{\hbar}{i}\frac{d}{dx} \psi(x) dx. In this discussion, the wavefunction is constructed as psi(x) = [exp(ikx) + exp(-ikx)]/sqrt(2), leading to an expectation value of

= 0 due to equal and opposite probabilities. The discussion emphasizes the importance of using normalized wavefunctions and suggests that any real-valued function can be used for calculations, such as sin(x) or e^{-x^2}.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of quantum mechanics concepts, specifically wavefunctions and operators.
  • Familiarity with the momentum operator and its eigenstates, particularly exp(ikx).
  • Knowledge of integration techniques in the context of quantum mechanics.
  • Basic understanding of normalization of wavefunctions and Dirac delta functions.
NEXT STEPS
  • Learn about the normalization of wavefunctions in quantum mechanics.
  • Explore the properties of momentum eigenstates and their implications in quantum mechanics.
  • Study the relationship between position and momentum representations, specifically the Fourier transform.
  • Investigate examples of calculating expectation values for different wavefunctions, such as Gaussian functions.
USEFUL FOR

This discussion is beneficial for physics students, quantum mechanics enthusiasts, and researchers focusing on wavefunction analysis and momentum operator calculations.

tanaygupta2000
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Homework Statement
Find the expectation value of momentum operator in a normalized real-valued wavefunction
Relevant Equations
momentum eigenstates = exp(ikx)
Q2.PNG


I know that the eigenstates of momentum operator are given by exp(ikx)
To construct a real-valued and normalized wavefunction out of these eigenstates,
I have,
psi(x) = [exp(ikx) + exp(-ikx)]/ sqrt(2)

But my trouble is, how do I find the expectation value of momentum operator <p> using this psi(x)?
On applying momentum operator, my integral is divergent.
I think that since there are equal probabilities in psi, <p> will be 0.
But how do I show it by calculations?
Please help!
 
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&lt;p&gt;=\int \psi^*(x) \frac{\hbar}{i}\frac{d}{dx} \psi(x) dx
is usual way of momentum calculation. Say ##\psi(x)## is real function ?
 
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tanaygupta2000 said:
Homework Statement:: Find the expectation value of momentum operator in a normalized real-valued wavefunction
Relevant Equations:: momentum eigenstates = exp(ikx)

View attachment 278349

I know that the eigenstates of momentum operator are given by exp(ikx)
To construct a real-valued and normalized wavefunction out of these eigenstates,
I have,
psi(x) = [exp(ikx) + exp(-ikx)]/ sqrt(2)

But my trouble is, how do I find the expectation value of momentum operator <p> using this psi(x)?
On applying momentum operator, my integral is divergent.
I think that since there are equal probabilities in psi, <p> will be 0.
But how do I show it by calculations?
Please help!
The problem says nothing about using the momentum eigenstates - which cannot be normalized in any case.
 
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You are asked to calculate the integral in post #2:

anuttarasammyak said:
&lt;p&gt;=\int \psi^*(x) \frac{\hbar}{i}\frac{d}{dx} \psi(x) dx
is usual way of momentum calculation. Say ##\psi(x)## is real function ?

This has nothing to do with momentum eigenfunctions.
 
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@tanaygupta If you are keen on momentum eigenfunction, you may expand the state by momentum eigenfunciton, say ##\phi(p)## instead of expansion of the state by coordinate eigenfunction ##\psi(x)##.

Momentum expectation value is
&lt;p&gt;=\int \phi^*(p) p \phi(p) dp
The relation of ##\phi(p)## and ##\psi(x)## is
\phi(p)=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi\hbar}}\int e^{-ipx/\hbar}\psi(x) dx
\psi(x)=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi\hbar}}\int e^{ipx/\hbar}\phi(p) dp

You see the last equation tells ##\phi(p)## is a kind of amplitude for momentum eigenfunction component, i.e. ## e^{ipx/\hbar}##, of the state.

As ##\psi(x)## is real you observe
\phi^*(p)=\phi(-p)
&lt;p&gt;=\int \phi(-p) p \phi(p) dp

How do you estimate this integral ?
 
Last edited:
anuttarasammyak said:
&lt;p&gt;=\int \psi^*(x) \frac{\hbar}{i}\frac{d}{dx} \psi(x) dx
is usual way of momentum calculation. Say ##\psi(x)## is real function ?
I think it will be easier to go with this one.
 
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tanaygupta2000 said:
I think it will be easier to go with this one.
What should I assume psi(x) to be?
 
  • #10
I just looked another question which was like this so I did like that.
 

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  • #11
tanaygupta2000 said:
What should I assume psi(x) to be?
Any real-valued function!
 
  • #12
PeroK said:
Any real-valued function!
Can I simply take sqrt(2/L) sin(n pi x/L)?
What should I get the value for <p>?
 
  • #13
By "any" we mean "arbitrary". You have to calculate the integral for any function. You can of course try a specific function to see what you get. But, the general solution is fairly easy.
 
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  • #14
PeroK said:
By "any" we mean "arbitrary". You have to calculate the integral for any function. You can of course try a specific function to see what you get. But, the general solution is fairly easy.
Can I simply take sin(x), cos(x) etc. ?
Please suggest me some easy function for calculating <p>.
 
  • #15
tanaygupta2000 said:
Can I simply take sin(x), cos(x) etc. ?
Please suggest me some easy function for calculating <p>.
Try ##\psi(x) = e^{-x^2}## and don't worry about the normalisation constant.
 
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