Expectation value of momentum operator

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around finding the expectation value of the momentum operator using a real-valued and normalized wavefunction. The original poster presents a wavefunction constructed from momentum eigenstates and expresses concern about the divergence of the integral when applying the momentum operator.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the calculation of the expectation value of momentum using the integral involving the wavefunction and its derivative. There are questions about the normalization of momentum eigenstates and the implications of using real-valued functions. Some participants suggest exploring different forms of wavefunctions to facilitate calculations.

Discussion Status

There is an ongoing exploration of various approaches to calculate the expectation value. Participants are sharing hints and discussing the implications of using different wavefunctions. Some guidance has been offered regarding the use of specific functions, but no consensus has been reached on a single method or solution.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the problem does not specify the use of momentum eigenstates, which cannot be normalized. There is also mention of the need to consider arbitrary real-valued functions for the calculations.

tanaygupta2000
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Homework Statement
Find the expectation value of momentum operator in a normalized real-valued wavefunction
Relevant Equations
momentum eigenstates = exp(ikx)
Q2.PNG


I know that the eigenstates of momentum operator are given by exp(ikx)
To construct a real-valued and normalized wavefunction out of these eigenstates,
I have,
psi(x) = [exp(ikx) + exp(-ikx)]/ sqrt(2)

But my trouble is, how do I find the expectation value of momentum operator <p> using this psi(x)?
On applying momentum operator, my integral is divergent.
I think that since there are equal probabilities in psi, <p> will be 0.
But how do I show it by calculations?
Please help!
 
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&lt;p&gt;=\int \psi^*(x) \frac{\hbar}{i}\frac{d}{dx} \psi(x) dx
is usual way of momentum calculation. Say ##\psi(x)## is real function ?
 
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tanaygupta2000 said:
Homework Statement:: Find the expectation value of momentum operator in a normalized real-valued wavefunction
Relevant Equations:: momentum eigenstates = exp(ikx)

View attachment 278349

I know that the eigenstates of momentum operator are given by exp(ikx)
To construct a real-valued and normalized wavefunction out of these eigenstates,
I have,
psi(x) = [exp(ikx) + exp(-ikx)]/ sqrt(2)

But my trouble is, how do I find the expectation value of momentum operator <p> using this psi(x)?
On applying momentum operator, my integral is divergent.
I think that since there are equal probabilities in psi, <p> will be 0.
But how do I show it by calculations?
Please help!
The problem says nothing about using the momentum eigenstates - which cannot be normalized in any case.
 
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You are asked to calculate the integral in post #2:

anuttarasammyak said:
&lt;p&gt;=\int \psi^*(x) \frac{\hbar}{i}\frac{d}{dx} \psi(x) dx
is usual way of momentum calculation. Say ##\psi(x)## is real function ?

This has nothing to do with momentum eigenfunctions.
 
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@tanaygupta If you are keen on momentum eigenfunction, you may expand the state by momentum eigenfunciton, say ##\phi(p)## instead of expansion of the state by coordinate eigenfunction ##\psi(x)##.

Momentum expectation value is
&lt;p&gt;=\int \phi^*(p) p \phi(p) dp
The relation of ##\phi(p)## and ##\psi(x)## is
\phi(p)=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi\hbar}}\int e^{-ipx/\hbar}\psi(x) dx
\psi(x)=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi\hbar}}\int e^{ipx/\hbar}\phi(p) dp

You see the last equation tells ##\phi(p)## is a kind of amplitude for momentum eigenfunction component, i.e. ## e^{ipx/\hbar}##, of the state.

As ##\psi(x)## is real you observe
\phi^*(p)=\phi(-p)
&lt;p&gt;=\int \phi(-p) p \phi(p) dp

How do you estimate this integral ?
 
Last edited:
anuttarasammyak said:
&lt;p&gt;=\int \psi^*(x) \frac{\hbar}{i}\frac{d}{dx} \psi(x) dx
is usual way of momentum calculation. Say ##\psi(x)## is real function ?
I think it will be easier to go with this one.
 
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tanaygupta2000 said:
I think it will be easier to go with this one.
What should I assume psi(x) to be?
 
  • #10
I just looked another question which was like this so I did like that.
 

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  • #11
tanaygupta2000 said:
What should I assume psi(x) to be?
Any real-valued function!
 
  • #12
PeroK said:
Any real-valued function!
Can I simply take sqrt(2/L) sin(n pi x/L)?
What should I get the value for <p>?
 
  • #13
By "any" we mean "arbitrary". You have to calculate the integral for any function. You can of course try a specific function to see what you get. But, the general solution is fairly easy.
 
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  • #14
PeroK said:
By "any" we mean "arbitrary". You have to calculate the integral for any function. You can of course try a specific function to see what you get. But, the general solution is fairly easy.
Can I simply take sin(x), cos(x) etc. ?
Please suggest me some easy function for calculating <p>.
 
  • #15
tanaygupta2000 said:
Can I simply take sin(x), cos(x) etc. ?
Please suggest me some easy function for calculating <p>.
Try ##\psi(x) = e^{-x^2}## and don't worry about the normalisation constant.
 
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